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Friday, October 09, 2020
Database Management System Multiple choice questions
a) tuple
b) attribute
c) metadata
d) teradata
2) Which of the following normal form deals with the anomaly of multivalue dependency?
a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 4NF
d) 5NF
3) Which of the following normal form deals with the repeating group anomaly?
a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 4NF
d) 5NF
4) …………… is a database language used to define data structures in SQL?
a) Sybase
b) Oracle
c) DDL
d) MySQL
5) The ………………… is a database file that contains metadata.
a) data index
b) data repository
c) data dictionary
d) none
6)Which of the following is not the state of a transaction in the database?
a) Active
b) Committed
c) Terminated
d) Nullified
7) The …………… file saves the recovery scenario in Quick Test Professional (QTP) environment
a) QRS
b) JPEG
c) DOC
d) TSR
8) Which of the following is not a command is SQL?
a) WHERE
b) ORDER BY
c) REMOVE
d) SELECT
9) How should we traverse an oracle database to retrieve a row in the quickest possible time?
a) Full table scan
b) Unique index
c) Primary key
d) Table access by row id
10) Which of the following is a concurrency control protocol?
a) Locked-based protocol
b) two-phase locking protocol
c) Timestamp ordering protocol
d) all
11) Which of the following normal forms deals with the anomaly of partial functional dependency on the composite key?
a) 1NF
b) 2NF
c) 4NF
d) 5NF
12) ………………… represents the structure of the database in a formal language acceptable by the DBMS.
a) Database schema
b) ER diagram
c) Database table
d) None
13) Which of the following statements are used to create indexes in the database?
a) CREATE INDEX
b) BUILD INDEX
c) WRITE INDEX
d) None’
14)Which of the following is a database recovery technique?
a) Check-pointing
b) Transaction rollback
c) Shadow paging
d) All
15)Which of the following is a foreing key constraint?
a)Referential integrity
b) Domain integrity
c) Entity integrity
d) All
16) Which of the following trains are important to select a primary key?
a) Unique
b) Not Null
c) Fully functional dependency
d) Indexed
e) All
17) What are various types of DBMS?
a) ORBDMS
b) Client server DBMS
c) Distributed DBMS
d) OODBMS
e) All
18) Which of the following are the types of integrity constraints enforced by RDBMS?
a) Entity integrity
b) Domain integrity
c) Referential integrity
d) All
19) The data model which describes how the data is actually stored is :
a) internal model
b) external model
c) logical model
d) none of these
20) Data about data is normally termed as :
a) directory
b) data bank
c) meta data
d) none of the above
21. In an object-oriented model, one object can access data of another object by passing:
a. Instance variable
b. Message
c. Variable
d. None of these
22. A view of database that appears to an application program is known as:
a. Schema
b. Subschema
c. virtual table
d. none of the above
23. An abstraction concept for building composite object from their component object is called:
a. Specialization
b. Normalization
c. Generalization
d. Aggregation
24. A set of objects that share a common structure and
a common behavior is called:
a. Object
b. Class
c. Entity
d. None of these
25. Every weak entity set can be converted into a strong entity set by:
a. using generalization
b. adding appropriate attributes
c. using aggregation
d. none of the above
26. The number of entities to which another entity can be associated via a relationship set is expressed as:
a. Entity
b. Cardinality
c. Schema
d. Attributes
27. Relations produced from an E-R model will always be in:
a. First normal form
b. Second normal form
c. Third normal form
d. Fourth normal form
28. In ER model the details of the entities are hidden from the user. This process is called:
a. Generalization
b. Specialization
c. Abstraction
d. none of these above
29. The file organization that provides very fast access to any arbitrary record of a file is:
a. Ordered file
b. Unordered file
c. Hashed file
d. B-tree
30. What is not true about a view?
a. It is a definition of a restricted portion of the database
b. It is a security mechanism
c. It is always updatable like any other table
d. All are true
31. In a relational database a referential integrity constraint can be specified with the help of
a. primary key
b. foreign key
c. secondary key
d. none of the above
32. A super key is a set of one or more attributes that, taken collectively, allow us
a. to identify uniquely an entity in the entityset
b. to make the key most powerful for fasterretrieval
c. to increase effectiveness of database access
d. none of the above
33. 4NF is designed to cope with:
a. Transitive dependency
b. Join dependency
c. Multi valued dependency
d. None of these
34. Every Boyee-Codd normal form is in
a. First normal form
b. Second normal form
c. Third normal form
d. All of the above
35. Which command is used to remove all rows from a table?
a. Delete
b. Remove
c. Truncate
d. Both [A] and [B]
36. Which of the following is an aggregate function in SQL?
a. Union
b. Like
c. Group By
d. Max
37. Which command is used to add a column to an existing table?
a. Create
b. Update
c.Alter
d. None of these
38. A deadlock exists in the system if and only if the wait for graph:
a. has a cycle in it
b. has a path from first node to last node
c. is a tree
d. none of the above
39. Rollback of transactions is normally used to:
a. recover from transaction failure
b. update the transaction
c. retrieve old records
d. repeat a transaction
40. Prevention of access to the database by unauthorized users is referred to as:
a. Integrity
b. Productivity
c. Security
d. Reliability
Friday, September 18, 2020
Database Systems MCQ
Q.1 Which of the following relational algebra operations do not require the participating tables to be union-compatible?
(A) Union
(B) Intersection
(C) Difference
(D) Join
Ans: (D)
Q.2 Which of the following is not a property of transactions?
(A) Atomicity
(B) Concurrency
(C) Isolation
(D) Durability
Ans: (B)
Q.3 Relational Algebra does not have
(A) Selection operator.
(B) Projection operator.
(C) Aggregation operators.
(D) Division operator.
Ans: (C)
Q.4 Checkpoints are a part of
(A) Recovery measures.
(B) Security measures.
(C) Concurrency measures.
(D) Authorization measures.
Ans: (A)
Q.5 Tree structures are used to store data in
(A) Network model.
(B) Relational model.
(C) Hierarchical model.
(D) File based system.
Ans: (C)
Q.6 The language that requires a user to specify the data to be retrieved without specifying exactly how to get it is
(A) Procedural DML.
(B) Non-Procedural DML.
(C) Procedural DDL.
(D) Non-Procedural DDL.
Ans: (B)
Q.7 Precedence graphs help to find a
(A) Serializable schedule.
(B) Recoverable schedule.
(C) Deadlock free schedule.
(D) Cascadeless schedule.
Ans: (A)
Q.8 The rule that a value of a foreign key must appear as a value of some specific table is called a
(A) Referential constraint.
(B) Index.
(C) Integrity constraint.
(D) Functional dependency.
Ans: (A) The rule that a value of a foreign key must appear as a value of some specific table is called a referential constraint. (Referential integrity constraint is concerned with foreign key)
Q.9 The clause in SQL that specifies that the query result should be sorted in ascending or descending order based on the values of one or more columns is
(A) View
(B) Order by
(C) Group by
(D) Having
Ans: (B) The clause in SQL that specifies that the query result should be sorted in ascending or descending order based on the values of one or more columns is ORDER BY. (ORDER BY clause is used to arrange the result of the SELECT statement)
Q.10 What is a disjoint less constraint?
(A) It requires that an entity belongs to no more than one level entity set.
(B) The same entity may belong to more than one level.
(C) The database must contain an unmatched foreign key value.
(D) An entity can be joined with another entity in the same level entity set.
Ans: (A) Disjoint less constraint requires that an entity belongs to no more than one level entity set. (Disjoint less constraint means that an entity can be a member of at most one of the subclasses of the specialization.)
Q.11 According to the levels of abstraction, the schema at the intermediate level is called
(A) Logical schema.
(B) Physical schema.
(C) Subschema.
(D) Super schema.
Ans: According to the levels of abstraction, the schema at the intermediate level is called conceptual schema. (Note: All the options given in the question are wrong.)
Q.12 It is an abstraction through which relationships are treated as higher level entities
(A) Generalization.
(B) Specialization.
(C) Aggregation.
(D) Inheritance.
Ans: (C ) It is an abstraction through which relationships are treated as higher level entities Aggregation. (In ER diagram, aggregation is used to represent a relationship as an entity set.)
Q.13 A relation is in ____________ if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of other composite key.
(A) 2NF
(B) 3NF
(C) BCNF
(D) 1NF
Ans: (B) A relation is in 3 NF if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of other composite key. (If an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of other composite key then the relation is not in BCNF, hence it has to be decomposed.)
Q.14 What is data integrity?
(A) It is the data contained in database that is non redundant.
(B) It is the data contained in database that is accurate and consistent.
(C) It is the data contained in database that is secured.
(D) It is the data contained in database that is shared.
Ans: (B) (Data integrity means that the data must be valid according to the given constraints. Therefore, the data is accurate and consistent.)
Q.15 What are the desirable properties of a decomposition
(A) Partition constraint.
(B) Dependency preservation.
(C) Redundancy.
(D) Security.
Ans: (B) What are the desirable properties of a decomposition – dependency preserving. (Lossless join and dependency preserving are the two goals of the decomposition.)
Q.16 In an E-R diagram double lines indicate
(A) Total participation.
(B) Multiple participation.
(C) Cardinality N.
(D) None of the above.
Ans: (A)
Q.17 The operation which is not considered a basic operation of relational algebra is
(A) Join.
(B) Selection.
(C) Union.
(D) Cross product.
Ans: (A)
Q.18 Fifth Normal form is concerned with
(A) Functional dependency.
(B) Multivalued dependency.
(C) Join dependency.
(D) Domain-key.
Ans: (C)
Q.19 Block-interleaved distributed parity is RAID level
(A) 2.
(B) 3
(C) 4.
(D) 5.
Ans: (D)
Q.20 Immediate database modification technique uses
(A) Both undo and redo.
(B) Undo but no redo.
(C) Redo but no undo.
(D) Neither undo nor redo.
Ans: (A)
Q.21 In SQL the statement select * from R, S is equivalent to
(A) Select * from R natural join S.
(B) Select * from R cross join S.
(C) Select * from R union join S.
(D) Select * from R inner join S.
Ans: (B)
Q.22 Which of the following is not a consequence of concurrent operations?
(A) Lost update problem.
(B) Update anomaly.
(C) Unrepeatable read.
(D) Dirty read.
Ans: (B)
Q.23 As per equivalence rules for query transformation, selection operation distributes over
(A) Union.
(B) Intersection.
(C) Set difference.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: (D)
Q.24 The metadata is created by the
(A) DML compiler
(B) DML pre-processor
(C) DDL interpreter
(D) Query interpreter
Ans: (C)
Q.25 When an E-R diagram is mapped to tables, the representation is redundant for
(A) weak entity sets
(B) weak relationship sets
(C) strong entity sets
(D) strong relationship sets
Ans: (B)