Database Systems MCQ

Q.1 The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that transforms a file key into a record location is :

(A) B-Tree File

(B) Hashed File

(C) Indexed File

(D) Sequential file

Ans: B

 

Q.2 Using Relational Algebra the query that finds customers, who have a balance of over 1000 is

(A) πCustomer_name(s balance >1000(Deposit))

(B) σCustomer_name(Pbalance >1000(Deposit))

(C) πCustomer_name(s balance >1000(Borrow))

(D) σCustomer_name(Pbalance >1000(Borrow))

Ans: A

 

Q.3 A primary key is combined with a foreign key creates

(A) Parent-Child relation ship between the tables that connect them.

(B) Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them.

(C) Network model between the tables that connect them.

(D) None of the above.

Ans: A

 

Q.4 In E-R Diagram derived attribute are represented by

(A) Ellipse

(B) Dashed ellipse

(C) Rectangle

(D) Triangle

Ans B

 

Q.5 Cross Product is a:

(A) Unary Operator

(B) Ternary Operator

(C) Binary Operator

(D) Not an operator

Ans: C

 

Q.6 An instance of relational schema R (A, B, C) has distinct values of A including NULL values. Which one of the following is true?

(A) A is a candidate key

(B) A is not a candidate key

(C) A is a primary Key

(D) Both (A) and (C)

Ans: B

 

Q.7 Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples, then the maximum size of join is:

(A) mn

(B) m+n

(C) (m+n)/2

(D) 2(m+n)

Ans: A

 

Q.8 The natural join is equal to :

(A) Cartesian Product

(B) Combination of Union and Cartesian product

(C) Combination of selection and Cartesian product

(D) Combination of projection and Cartesian product

Ans: D

 

Q.9 Which one of the following is not true for a view:

(A) View is derived from other tables.

(B) View is a virtual table.

(C) A view definition is permanently stored as part of the database.

(D) View never contains derived columns.

Ans: C

 

Q.10 A primary key if combined with a foreign key creates

(A) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them.

(B) Many to many relationship between the tables that connect them.

(C) Network model between the tables that connect them.

(D) None of the above.

Ans: A

 

Q.11 In E-R Diagram relationship type is represented by

(A) Ellipse

(B) Dashed ellipse

(C) Rectangle

(D) Diamond

Ans: D

 

Q.12 Hierarchical model is also called

(A) Tree structure

(B) Plex Structure

(C) Normalize Structure

(D) Table Structure

Ans: A

 

Q.13 To delete a particular column in a relation the command used is:

(A) UPDATE

(B) DROP

(C) ALTER

(D) DELETE

Ans: C

 

Q.14 The ______ operator is used to compare a value to a list of literals values that have been specified.

(A) BETWEEN

(B) ANY

(C) IN

(D) ALL

Ans: A

 

Q.15 A logical schema

A) is the entire database

B) is a standard way of organizing information into a accessible part

C) describe how data is actually stored on disk

D) none of these

Ans: D

 

Q.16 A B-tree of order m has maximum of _____________ children

(A) m

(B) m+1

(C) m-1

(D) m/2

Ans: A

 

Q.17 _____________ function divides one numeric expression by another and returns the remainder.

(A) POWER

(B) MOD

(C) ROUND

(D) REMAINDER

Ans: B

 

Q.18 A data manipulation command the combines the records from one or more tables is called

(A) SELECT

(B) PROJECT

(C) JOIN

(D) PRODUCT

Ans: C

 

Q.19 In E-R diagram generalization is represented by

(A) Ellipse

(B) Dashed ellipse

(C) Rectangle

(D) Triangle

Ans: D

 

Q.20 _________ is a virtual table that draws its data from the result of an SQL SELECT statement.

(A) View

(B) Synonym

(C) Sequence

(D) Transaction

Ans: A

 

Q.21 The method of access which uses key transformation is known as

(A) Direct

(B) Hash

(C) Random

(D) Sequential

Ans: B

 

Q.22 A table joined with itself is called

(A) Join

(B) Self Join

(C) Outer Join

(D) Equi Join

Ans: B

 

Q.23 _________ data type can store unstructured data

(A) RAW

(B) CHAR

(C) NUMERIC

(D) VARCHAR

Ans: A

 

Q.24 Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS

(A) Query languages and utilities

(B) DML and query language

(C) Data dictionary and transaction log

(D) Data dictionary and query language

Ans: C

Database Systems MCQ

 Q.1 Which of the following is correct:
(A) a SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates.
(B) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation.
(C) a SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations
(D) None of these
Ans: D

Q.2 It is better to use files than a DBMS when there are
(A) Stringent real-time requirements.
(B) Multiple users wish to access the data.
(C) Complex relationships among data.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: B

Q.3 The conceptual model is
(A) dependent on hardware.
(B) dependent on software.
(C) dependent on both hardware and software .
(D) independent of both hardware and software.
Ans: D

Q.4 What is a relationship called when it is maintained between two entities?
(A) Unary
(B) Binary
(C) Ternary
(D) Quaternary
Ans: B

Q.5 Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a table?
(A) PROJECTION
(B) SELECTION
(C) UNION
(D) JOIN
Ans: A

Q.6 Which of the following is a valid SQL type?
(A) CHARACTER
(B) NUMERIC
(C) FLOAT
(D) All of the above
Ans: D

Q.7 The RDBMS terminology for a row is
(A) tuple.
(B) relation.
(C) attribute.
(D) degree.
Ans: A

Q.8 Which of the following operations need the participating relations to be union compatible?
(A) UNION
(B) INTERSECTION
(C) DIFFERENCE
(D) All of the above
Ans: D

Q.9 The full form of DDL is
(A Dynamic Data Language
(B) Detailed Data Language
(C) Data Definition Language
(D) Data Derivation Language
Ans: C

Q.10 Which of the following is an advantage of view?
(A) Data security
(B) Derived columns
(C) Hiding of complex queries
(D) All of the above
Ans: D

Q.11 Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL?
(A) SELECT NULL FROM EMPLOYEE;
(B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE;
(C) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE SALARY = NULL;
(D) None of the above
Ans: B

Q.12 The users who use easy-to-use menu are called
(A) Sophisticated end users.
(B) Naïve users.
(C) Stand-alone users.
(D) Casual end users.
Ans: B

Q.13 Which database level is closest to the users?
(A) External
(B) Internal
(C) Physical
(D) Conceptual
Ans: A

Q.14 Which are the two ways in which entities can participate in a relationship?
(A) Passive and active
(B) Total and partial
(C) Simple and Complex
(D) All of the above
Ans: B

Q.15 The result of the UNION operation between R1 and R2 is a relation that includes
(A) all the tuples of R1
(B) all the tuples of R2
(C) all the tuples of R1 and R2
(D) all the tuples of R1 and R2 which have common columns
Ans: D

Q.16 Which of the following is a comparison operator in SQL?
(A) =
(B) LIKE
(C) BETWEEN
(D) All of the above
Ans: D

Q.17 A set of possible data values is called
(A) attribute.
(B) degree.
(C) tuple.
(D) domain.
Ans: D

Q.18 Which of the operations constitute a basic set of operations for manipulating relational data?
(A) Predicate calculus
(B) Relational calculus
(C) Relational algebra
(D) None of the above
Ans:C

Q.19 Which of the following is another name for weak entity?
(A) Child
(B) Owner
(C) Dominant
(D) All of the above
Ans: A

Q.20 Which of the following database object does not physically exist?
(A) base table
(B) index
(C) view
(D) none of the above
Ans: C

Q.21 NULL is
(A) the same as 0 for integer
(B) the same as blank for character
(C) the same as 0 for integer and blank for character
(D) not a value
Ans: D

Q.22 Which of the following is record based logical model?
(A) Network Model
(B) Object oriented model
(C) E-R Model
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Q.23 A data dictionary is a special file that contains:
(A) The name of all fields in all files.
(B) The width of all fields in all files.
(C) The data type of all fields in all files.
(D) All of the above.
Ans: D

Q.24 A file manipulation command that extracts some of the records from a file is called
(A) SELECT
(B) PROJECT
(C) JOIN
(D) PRODUCT
Ans: A

Database Systems MCQ

 Q.1 The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a program is
(A) The data definition language (DDL).
(B) The data manipulation language (DML).
(C) The database administrator (DBA).
(D) A query language.
Ans: B

Q.2 A relational database developer refers to a record as
(A) a criteria.
(B) a relation.
(C) a tuple.
(D) an attribute.
Ans: C

Q.3 The relational model feature is that there
(A) is no need for primary key data.
(B) is much more data independence than some other database models.
(C) are explicit relationships among records.
(D) are tables with many dimensions.
Ans: B

Q.4 Conceptual design
(A) is a documentation technique.
(B) needs data volume and processing frequencies to determine the size of the database.
(C) involves modelling independent of the DBMS.
(D) is designing the relational model.
Ans:C

Q.5 The method in which records are physically stored in a specified order according to a key field in each record is
(A) hash.
(B) direct.
(C) sequential.
(D) all of the above.
Ans: A A method in which records are physically stored in a specified order according to a key field in each record is hash.
(In hash method, a hash function is performed on the key value to determine the unique physical address of the record to store or retrieve)

Q.6 A subschema expresses
(A) the logical view.
(B) the physical view.
(C) the external view.
(D) all of the above.
Ans: C A subschema expresses the external view.
(External schemas are called also called as subschemas)

Q.7 Count function in SQL returns the number of
(A) values.
(B) distinct values.
(C) groups.
(D) columns.
Ans: A Count function in SQL returns the number of values.
(Count function counts all the not null values in the specific column. If we want to count only distinct values than the DISTINCT keyword is also to be used)

Q.8 Which one of the following statements is false?
(A) The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator.
(B) Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.
(C) The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element.
(D) The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.
Ans: B

Q.9 An advantage of the database management approach is
(A) data is dependent on programs.
(B) data redundancy increases.
(C) data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs.
(D) none of the above.
Ans: C

Q.10 A DBMS query language is designed to
(A) support end users who use English-like commands.
(B) support in the development of complex applications software.
(C) specify the structure of a database.
(D) all of the above.
Ans: D

Q.11 Transaction processing is associated with everything below except
(A) producing detail, summary, or exception reports.
(B) recording a business activity.
(C) confirming an action or triggering a response.
(D) maintaining data.
Ans: C

Q.12 It is possible to define a schema completely using
(A) VDL and DDL.
(B) DDL and DML.
(C) SDL and DDL.
(D) VDL and DML.
Ans: B

Q.13 The method of access which uses key transformation is known as
(A) direct.
(B) hash.
(C) random.
(D) sequential.
Ans: B

Q.14 Data independence means
(A) data is defined separately and not included in programs.
(B) programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data.
(C) programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data.
(D) both (B) and (C).
Ans: D both (B) and (C)

Q.15 The statement in SQL which allows to change the definition of a table is
(A) Alter.
(B) Update.
(C) Create.
(D) select.
Ans: A

Q.16 E-R model uses this symbol to represent weak entity set ?
(A) Dotted rectangle.
(B) Diamond
(C) Doubly outlined rectangle
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Q.17 SET concept is used in :
(A) Network Model
(B) Hierarchical Model
(C) Relational Model
(D) None of these
Ans: A

Q.18 Relational Algebra is
(A) Data Definition Language .
(B) Meta Language
(C) Procedural query Language
(D) None of the above
Ans: C

Q.19 Key to represent relationship between tables is called
(A) Primary key
(B) Secondary Key
(C) Foreign Key
(D) None of these
Ans: C

Q.20 _______ produces the relation that has attributes of R1 and R2
(A) Cartesian product
(B) Difference
(C) Intersection
(D) Product
Ans: A

Q.21 The file organization that provides very fast access to any arbitrary record of a file is
(A) Ordered file
(B) Unordered file
(C) Hashed file
(D) B-tree
Ans: C

Q.22 DBMS helps achieve
(A) Data independence
(B) Centralized control of data
(C) Neither (A) nor (B)
(D) both (A) and (B)
Ans: D

Q.23 Which of the following are the properties of entities?
(A) Groups
(B) Table
(C) Attributes
(D) Switchboards
Ans: C

Q.24 In a relation
(A) Ordering of rows is immaterial
(B) No two rows are identical
(C) (A) and (B) both are true
(D) None of these.
Ans: C

Database Systems MCQ

 Q.1 In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as:

(A) Number of tuples. 

(B) Number of attributes.

(C) Number of tables. 

(D) Number of constraints.

Ans: A

Q.2 Relational calculus is a

(A) Procedural language. 

(B) Non- Procedural language.

(C) Data definition language. 

(D) High level language.

Ans: B

Q.3 The view of total database content is

(A) Conceptual view. 

(B) Internal view.

(C) External view. 

(D) Physical View.

Ans: A

Q.4 Cartesian product in relational algebra is

(A) a Unary operator. 

(B) a Binary operator.

(C) a Ternary operator. 

(D) not defined.

Ans: B Cartesian product in relational algebra is a binary operator. (It requires two operands. e.g., PXQ)

Q.5 DML is provided for

(A) Description of logical structure of database.

(B) Addition of new structures in the database system.

(C) Manipulation & processing of database.

(D) Definition of physical structure of database system.

Ans: C DML is provided for manipulation & processing of database. (Data stored in the database is processed or manipulated using data manipulation language commands as its name)

Q.6 ‘AS’ clause is used in SQL for

(A) Selection operation. 

(B) Rename operation.

(C) Join operation. 

(D) Projection operation.

Ans: B ‘AS’ clause is used in SQL for rename operation. (e.g., SELECT ENO AS EMPLOYEE_NO FROM EMP)

Q.7 ODBC stands for

(A) Object Database Connectivity.

(B) Oral Database Connectivity.

(C) Oracle Database Connectivity.

(D) Open Database Connectivity.

Ans: D

Q.8 Architecture of the database can be viewed as

(A) two levels. 

(B) four levels.

(C) three levels. 

(D) one level.

Ans: C

Q.9 In a relational model, relations are termed as

(A) Tuples. 

(B) Attributes

(C) Tables. 

(D) Rows.

Ans:

Q.10 The database schema is written in

(A) HLL 

(B) DML

(C) DDL 

(D) DCL

Ans: C

Q.11 In the architecture of a database system external level is the

(A) physical level. 

(B) logical level.

(C) conceptual level 

(D) view level.

Ans: D

Q.12 An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is a

(A) strong entity set. 

(B) weak entity set.

(C) simple entity set. 

(D) primary entity set.

Ans: B

Q.13 In a Hierarchical model records are organized as

(A) Graph. 

(B) List.

(C) Links. 

(D) Tree.

Ans: D

Q.14 In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by

(A) rectangle. 

(B) square.

(C) ellipse. 

(D) triangle.

Ans: C

Q.15 In case of entity integrity, the primary key may be

(A) not Null 

(B) Null

(C) both Null & not Null. 

(D) any value.

Ans: A

Q.16 In tuple relational calculus P1 -> P2 is equivalent to

(A) ¬P1vP2 

(B) P1vP2

(C) P1^P2 

(D) P1^¬P2

Ans: A In tuple relational calculus P1 -> P2 is equivalent to ¬P1vP2. (The logical implication expression A->B, meaning if A then B,is equivalent to ¬AvB)

Q.17 The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the

(A) DML 

(B) DDL

(C) VDL 

(D) SDL

Ans: A

Q.18 A logical schema

(A) is the entire database.

(B) is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.

(C) describes how data is actually stored on disk.

(D) both (A) and (C)

Ans: A

Q.19 Related fields in a database are grouped to form a

(A) data file. 

(B) data record.

(C) menu. 

(D) bank.

Ans: B Related data fields in a database are grouped to form a data record. (A record is a collection of related fields)

Q.20 The database environment has all of the following components except:

(A) users. 

(B) separate files.

(C) database. 

(D) database administrator.

Ans: A

Q.21 The language which has recently become the defacto standard for interfacing application programs with relational database system is

(A) Oracle. 

(B) SQL.

(C) DBase. 

(D) 4GL.

Ans: B

Q.22 The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses is a

(A) module. 

(B) relational model.

(C) schema. 

(D) sub schema.

Ans: D

Q.23 In an E-R diagram an entity set is represent by a

(A) rectangle. 

(B) ellipse.

(C) diamond box. 

(D) circle.

Ans: A

Q.24 A report generator is used to

(A) update files. 

(B) print files on paper.

(C) data entry. 

(D) delete files.

Ans: B

Database Systems MCQ

 Q.1 Which of the following relational algebraic operations is not from set theory?

(A) Union

(B) Intersection

(C) Cartesian Product

(D) Select

Ans: (D)

 

Q.2 Which of the following ensures the atomicity of the transaction?

(A) Transaction management component of DBMS

(B) Application Programmer

(C) Concurrency control component of DBMS

(D) Recovery management component of DBMS

Ans: (A)

 

Q.3 If both the functional dependencies : X->Y and Y->X hold for two attributes X and Y then the relationship between X and Y is

(A) M:N

(B) M:1

(C) 1:1

(D) 1:M

Ans: (C)

 

Q.4 What will be the number of columns and rows respectively obtained for the operation, AB, if A B are Base union compatible and all the rows of a are common to B? Assume A has 4 columns and 10 rows; and B has 4 columns and 15 rows

(A) 4,0

(B) 0,0

(C) 4,5

(D) 8,5

Ans: (A)

 

Q.5 For correct behaviour during recovery, undo and redo operation must be

(A) Commutative

(B) Associative

(C) idempotent

(D) distributive

Ans: (C)

 

Q.6 Which of the following is not a consequence of non-normalized database?

(A) Update Anomaly

(B) Insertion Anomaly

(C) Redundancy

(D) Lost update problem

Ans: (D)

 

Q.7 Which of the following is true for relational calculus?

(A) "x(P(x))º¬($x)(¬P(x)) 

(B) "x(P(x))º¬($x)(P(x))

(C) "x(P(x))º($x)(¬P(x)) 

(D) "x(P(x))º($x)(P(x))

Ans: (A)

Q.8 The part of a database management system which ensures that the data remains in a consistent state is

(A) authorization and integrity manager

(B) buffer manager

(C) transaction manager

(D) file manager

Ans: (C)

 

Q.9 Relationships among relationships can be represented in an-E-R model using

(A) Aggregation

(B) Association

(C) Weak entity sets

(D) Weak relationship sets

Ans: (A)

 

Q.10 In tuple relational calculus P1 AND P2 is equivalent to

(A) (¬P1OR¬P2).

(B) ¬(P1OR¬P2).

(C) ¬(¬P1OR P2).

(D) ¬(¬P1OR ¬P2).

Ans: (D)

 

Q.11 If α->β holds then so does

(A) ϒα->ϒβ

(B) α->ϒβ

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

 

Q.12 Cascading rollback is avoided in all protocol except

(A) strict two-phase locking protocol.

(B) tree locking protocol

(C) two-phase locking protocol

(D) validation based protocol.

Ans: (D)

 

Q.13 Wait-for graph is used for

(A) detecting view serializability.

(B) detecting conflict serializability.

(C) deadlock prevention

(D) deadlock detection

Ans: (D)

 

Q.14 The expression sq1(E1 |X|q2E2) is the same as

(A) E1 |X|q1^ q2E2 (B) sq1 E1^sq2 E2

(C) E1 |X|q1ᵥ q2E2 (D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

 

Q.15 The clause alter table in SQL can be used to

(A) add an attribute

(B) delete an attribute

(C) alter the default values of an attribute

(D) all of the above

Ans: (D)

 

Q. 16 The data models defined by ANSI/SPARC architecture are

(A) Conceptual, physical and internal

(B) Conceptual, view and external

(C) Logical, physical and internal

(D) Logical, physical and view

Ans: (D)

 

Q.17 Whenever two independent one-to-many relationships are mixed in the same relation, a _______ arises.

(A) Functional dependency

(B) Multi-valued dependency

(C) Transitive dependency

(D) Partial dependency

Ans:(B)

 

Q.18 A table can have only one

(A) Secondary key

(B) Alternate key

(C) Unique key

(D) Primary key

Ans: (D)

 

Q.19 Dependency preservation is not guaranteed in

(A) BCNF

(B) 3NF

(C) PJNF

(D) DKNF

Ans: (A)

 

Q.20 Which is the best file organization when data is frequently added or deleted from a file?

(A) Sequential

(B) Direct

(C) Index sequential

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

 

Q.21 Which of the following constitutes a basic set of operations for manipulating relational data?

(A) Predicate calculus

(B) Relational calculus

(C) Relational algebra

(D) SQL

Ans: (C)

 

Q.22 An advantage of views is

(A) Data security

(B) Derived columns

(C) Hiding of complex queries

(D) All of the above

Ans: (A)

 

Q.23 Which of the following is not a recovery technique?

(A) Deferred update

(B) Immediate update

(C) Two-phase commit

(D) Shadow paging

Ans: (C)

 

Q.24 Isolation of the transactions is ensured by

(A) Transaction management

(B) Application programmer

(C) Concurrency control

(D) Recovery management

Ans: (C)

 

Q.25 _______ operator is used to compare a value to a list of literals values that have been specified.

(A) Like

(B) COMPARE

(C) BETWEEN

(D) IN

Ans: (A)

Database Systems MCQ

 Q.1 The cost of reading and writing temporary files while evaluating a query can be reduced by

(A) building indices 

(B) pipelining

(C) join ordering 

(D) none of the above

Ans: (B)

Q.2 A transaction is in __________ state after the final statement has been executed.

(A) partially committed 

(B) active

(C) committed 

(D) none of the above

Ans: (C)

Q.3 In multiple granularity of locks SIX lock is compatible with

(A) IX 

(B) IS

(C) S 

(D) SIX

Ans: (B)

Q.4 The statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of the modification of the database is

(A) backup 

(B) assertion

(C) recovery 

(D) trigger

Ans: (D)

Q.5 The normal form that is not necessarily dependency preserving is

(A) 2NF 

(B) 3NF

(C) BCNF 

(D) 4NF

Ans: (A)

Q.6 A functional dependency of the form x -> y is trivial if

(A) y Í x 

(B) y Ì x

(C) x Í y 

(D) x Ì y

Ans: (A)

Q.7 The normalization was first proposed by ______________.

(A) Code 

(B) Codd

(C) Boyce Codd 

(D) Boyce

Ans: (B)

Q.8 The division operator divides a dividend A of degree m+n by a divisor relation B of

degree n and produces a result of degree

(A) m – 1 

(B) m + 1

(C) m * m 

(D) m

Ans: (D)

Q.9 Which of the following is not a characteristic of a relational database model?

(A) Table 

(B) Tree like structure

(C) Complex logical relationship 

(D) Records

Ans: (B)

Q.10 Assume transaction A holds a shared lock R. If transaction B also requests for a shared lock on R.

(A) It will result in a deadlock situation.

(B) It will immediately be rejected.

(C) It will immediately be granted.

(D) It will be granted as soon as it is released by A .

Ans: (C)

Q.11 In E-R Diagram total participation is represented by

(A) double lines 

(B) Dashed lines

(C) single line 

(D) Triangle

Ans: (A)

Q.12 The FD A -> B , DB -> C implies

(A) DA -> C 

(B) A -> C

(C) B -> A 

(D) DB -> A

Ans: (A)

Q.13 The graphical representation of a query is ________.

(A) B-Tree 

(B) graph

(C) Query Tree 

(D) directed graph

Ans: (C)

Q.14 Union operator is a :

(A) Unary Operator 

(B) Ternary Operator

(C) Binary Operator 

(D) Not an operator

Ans: (C)

Q.15 Relations produced from an E-R model will always be

(A) First normal form. 

(B) Second normal form.

(C) Third normal form. 

(D) Fourth normal form.

Ans: (A)

Q.16 Manager salary details are hidden from the employee .This is

(A) Conceptual level data hiding.

(B) External level data hiding.

(C) Physical level data hiding.

(D) None of these.

Ans: (A)

Q.17 Which of the following is true for network structure?

(A) It is a physical representation of the data.

(B) It allows many to many relationship.

(C) It is conceptually simple.

(D) It will be the dominant database of the future.

Ans: (A)

Q.18 Which two files are used during operation of the DBMS?

(A) Query languages and utilities

(B) DML and query language

(C) Data dictionary and transaction log

(D) Data dictionary and query language

Ans: (C )

Q.19 A list consists of last names, first names, addresses and pin codes. If all people in the list have the same last name and same pin code a useful key would be

(A) the pin code

(B) the last name

(C) the compound key first name and last name

(D) Tr from next page

Ans: (C )

Q.20 In b-tree the number of keys in each node is ____ than the number of its children.

(A) one less 

(B) same

(C) one more 

(D) half

Ans: (A)

Q.21 The drawback of shadow paging technique are

(A) Commit overhead 

(B) Data fragmentation

(C) Garbage collection 

(D) All of these

Ans: (D)

Q.22 Which normal form is considered adequate for normal relational database design?

(A) 2NF 

(B) 5NF

(C) 4NF 

(D) 3NF

Ans: (D)

Q.23 Which of the following addressing modes permits relocation without any change over in the code?

(A) Indirect addressing 

(B) Indexed addressing

(C) PC relative addressing 

(D) Base register addressing

Ans: (B)

Q.24 In a multi-user database, if two users wish to update the same record at the same time, they are prevented from doing so by

(A) jamming 

(B) password

(C) documentation 

(D) record lock

Ans: (D)

Q.25 The values of the attribute describes a particular_____________

(A) Entity set 

(B) File

(C) Entity instance 

(D) Organization

Ans: (C)

Database Systems MCQ

 Q.1 When R∩S = Ф , then the cost of computing R|><|S is

(A) the same as R × S

(B) greater the R × S

(C) less than R × S

(D) cannot say anything

Ans: (A)

 

Q.2 In SQL the word ‘natural’ can be used with

(A) inner join

(B) full outer join

(C) right outer join

(D) all of the above

Ans: (A)

 

Q.3 The default level of consistency in SQL is

(A) repeatable read

(B) read committed

(C) read uncommitted

(D) serializable

Ans: (D)

 

Q.4 If a transaction T has obtained an exclusive lock on item Q, then T can

(A) read Q

(B) write Q

(C) both read and write Q

(D) write Q but not read Q

Ans: (C)

 

Q.5 Shadow paging has

(A) no redo

(B) no undo

(C) redo but no undo

(D) neither redo nor undo

Ans: (A)

 

Q.6 If the closure of an attribute set is the entire relation then the attribute set is a

(A) superkey

(B) candidate key

(C) primary key

(D) not a key

Ans: (A)

 

Q.7 DROP is a ______________ statement in SQL.

(A) Query

(B) Embedded SQL

(C) DDL

(D) DCL

Ans: (C)

 

Q.8 If two relations R and S are joined, then the non matching tuples of both R and S are ignored in

(A) left outer join

(B) right outer join

(C) full outer join

(D) inner join

Ans: (D)

 

Q.9 The keyword to eliminate duplicate rows from the query result in SQL is

(A) DISTINCT

(B) NO DUPLICATE

(C) UNIQUE

(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

 

Q.10 In 2NF

(A) No functional dependencies (FDs) exist.

(B) No multivalued dependencies (MVDs) exist.

(C) No partial FDs exist.

(D) No partial MVDs exist.

Ans: (C)

 

Q.11 Which one is correct statement?

Logical data independence provides following without changing application programs:

(i) Changes in access methods.

(ii) Adding new entities in database

(iii) Splitting an existing record into two or more records

(iv) Changing storage medium

(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iv) only, (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii)

Ans: (D)

 

Q.12 In an E-R, Y is the dominant entity and X is a subordinate entity. Then which of the following is incorrect :

(A) Operationally, if Y is deleted, so is X

(B) existence is dependent on Y.

(C) Operationally, if X is deleted, so is Y.

(D) Operationally, if X is deleted, & remains the same.

Ans: (C)

 

Q.13 Relational Algebra is

(A) Data Definition Language .

(B) Meta Language

(C) Procedural query Language

(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

 

Q.14 Which of the following aggregate functions does not ignore nulls in its results?.

(A) COUNT .

(B) COUNT (*)

(C) MAX

(D) MIN

Ans: (B)

 

Q.15 R (A,B,C,D) is a relation. Which of the following does not have a lossless join dependency preserving BCNF decomposition

(A) A->B, B->CD

(B) A->B, B->C, C->D .

(C) AB->C, C->AD

(D) A->BCD

Ans: (D)

 

Q.16 Consider the join of relation R with a relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples, then the maximum and minimum size of the join respectively are

(A) m+n and 0

(B) m+n and |m-n|

(C) mn and 0

(D) mn and m+n

Ans: (C)

 

Q.17 Maximum height of a B+ tree of order m with n key values is

(A) Log_m(n)

(B) (m+n)/2

(C) Log_m/2(m+n)

(D) None of these

Ans: (D)

 

Q.18 Which one is true statement :

(A) With finer degree of granularity of locking a high degree of concurrency is possible.

(B) Locking prevents non – serializable schedules.

(C) Locking cannot take place at field level.

(D) An exclusive lock on data item X is granted even if a shared lock is already held on X.

Ans: (A)

 

Q.19 Which of the following statement on the view concept in SQL is invalid?

(A) All views are not updateable

(B) The views may be referenced in an SQL statement whenever tables are referenced.

(C) The views are instantiated at the time they are referenced and not when they are defined.

(D) The definition of a view should not have GROUP BY clause in it.

Ans: (D)

 

Q.20 Which of the following concurrency control schemes is not based on the serializability property?

(A) Two – phase locking

(B) Graph-based locking

(C) Time-stamp based locking

(D) None of these

Ans: (D)

 

Q.21 Which of the following is a reason to model data?

(A) Understand each user’s perspective of data

(B) Understand the data itself irrespective of the physical representation

(C) Understand the use of data across application areas

(D) All of the above

Ans: (D)

 

Q.22 If an entity can belong to only one lower level entity then the constraint is

(A) disjoint

(B) partial

(C) overlapping

(D) single

Ans: (B)

 

Q.23 The common column is eliminated in

(A) theta join

(B) outer join

(C) natural join

(D) composed join

Ans: (C )

 

Q.24 In SQL, testing whether a subquery is empty is done using

(A) DISTINCT

(B) UNIQUE

(C) NULL

(D) EXISTS

Ans: (D)

 

Q.25 Use of UNIQUE while defining an attribute of a table in SQL means that the attribute

values are

(A) distinct values

(B) cannot have NULL

(C) both (A) & (B)

(D) same as primary key

Ans: (C)

Database Systems MCQ

 Q.1 Which of the following relational algebra operations do not require the participating tables to be union-compatible?

(A) Union 

(B) Intersection

(C) Difference 

(D) Join

Ans: (D)

Q.2 Which of the following is not a property of transactions?

(A) Atomicity 

(B) Concurrency

(C) Isolation 

(D) Durability

Ans: (B)

Q.3 Relational Algebra does not have

(A) Selection operator. 

(B) Projection operator.

(C) Aggregation operators. 

(D) Division operator.

Ans: (C)

Q.4 Checkpoints are a part of

(A) Recovery measures. 

(B) Security measures.

(C) Concurrency measures. 

(D) Authorization measures.

Ans: (A)

Q.5 Tree structures are used to store data in

(A) Network model. 

(B) Relational model.

(C) Hierarchical model. 

(D) File based system.

Ans: (C)

Q.6 The language that requires a user to specify the data to be retrieved without specifying exactly how to get it is

(A) Procedural DML. 

(B) Non-Procedural DML.

(C) Procedural DDL. 

(D) Non-Procedural DDL.

Ans: (B)

Q.7 Precedence graphs help to find a

(A) Serializable schedule. 

(B) Recoverable schedule.

(C) Deadlock free schedule. 

(D) Cascadeless schedule.

Ans: (A)

Q.8 The rule that a value of a foreign key must appear as a value of some specific table is called a

(A) Referential constraint. 

(B) Index.

(C) Integrity constraint. 

(D) Functional dependency.

Ans: (A) The rule that a value of a foreign key must appear as a value of some specific table is called a referential constraint. (Referential integrity constraint is concerned with foreign key)

Q.9 The clause in SQL that specifies that the query result should be sorted in ascending or descending order based on the values of one or more columns is

(A) View 

(B) Order by

(C) Group by 

(D) Having

Ans: (B) The clause in SQL that specifies that the query result should be sorted in ascending or descending order based on the values of one or more columns is ORDER BY. (ORDER BY clause is used to arrange the result of the SELECT statement)

Q.10 What is a disjoint less constraint?

(A) It requires that an entity belongs to no more than one level entity set.

(B) The same entity may belong to more than one level.

(C) The database must contain an unmatched foreign key value.

(D) An entity can be joined with another entity in the same level entity set.

Ans: (A) Disjoint less constraint requires that an entity belongs to no more than one level entity set. (Disjoint less constraint means that an entity can be a member of at most one of the subclasses of the specialization.)

Q.11 According to the levels of abstraction, the schema at the intermediate level is called

(A) Logical schema. 

(B) Physical schema.

(C) Subschema. 

(D) Super schema.

Ans: According to the levels of abstraction, the schema at the intermediate level is called conceptual schema. (Note: All the options given in the question are wrong.)

Q.12 It is an abstraction through which relationships are treated as higher level entities

(A) Generalization. 

(B) Specialization.

(C) Aggregation. 

(D) Inheritance.

Ans: (C ) It is an abstraction through which relationships are treated as higher level entities Aggregation. (In ER diagram, aggregation is used to represent a relationship as an entity set.)

Q.13 A relation is in ____________ if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of other composite key.

(A) 2NF 

(B) 3NF

(C) BCNF 

(D) 1NF

Ans: (B) A relation is in 3 NF if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of other composite key. (If an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of other composite key then the relation is not in BCNF, hence it has to be decomposed.)

Q.14 What is data integrity?

(A) It is the data contained in database that is non redundant.

(B) It is the data contained in database that is accurate and consistent.

(C) It is the data contained in database that is secured.

(D) It is the data contained in database that is shared.

Ans: (B) (Data integrity means that the data must be valid according to the given constraints. Therefore, the data is accurate and consistent.)

Q.15 What are the desirable properties of a decomposition

(A) Partition constraint. 

(B) Dependency preservation.

(C) Redundancy. 

(D) Security.

Ans: (B) What are the desirable properties of a decomposition – dependency preserving. (Lossless join and dependency preserving are the two goals of the decomposition.)

Q.16 In an E-R diagram double lines indicate

(A) Total participation. 

(B) Multiple participation.

(C) Cardinality N. 

(D) None of the above.

Ans: (A)

Q.17 The operation which is not considered a basic operation of relational algebra is

(A) Join. 

(B) Selection.

(C) Union. 

(D) Cross product.

Ans: (A)

Q.18 Fifth Normal form is concerned with

(A) Functional dependency. 

(B) Multivalued dependency.

(C) Join dependency. 

(D) Domain-key.

Ans: (C)

Q.19 Block-interleaved distributed parity is RAID level

(A) 2. 

(B) 3

(C) 4. 

(D) 5.

Ans: (D)

Q.20 Immediate database modification technique uses

(A) Both undo and redo. 

(B) Undo but no redo.

(C) Redo but no undo. 

(D) Neither undo nor redo.

Ans: (A)

Q.21 In SQL the statement select * from R, S is equivalent to

(A) Select * from R natural join S. 

(B) Select * from R cross join S.

(C) Select * from R union join S. 

(D) Select * from R inner join S.

Ans: (B)

Q.22 Which of the following is not a consequence of concurrent operations?

(A) Lost update problem. 

(B) Update anomaly.

(C) Unrepeatable read. 

(D) Dirty read.

Ans: (B)

Q.23 As per equivalence rules for query transformation, selection operation distributes over

(A) Union. 

(B) Intersection.

(C) Set difference. 

(D) All of the above.

Ans: (D)

Q.24 The metadata is created by the

(A) DML compiler 

(B) DML pre-processor

(C) DDL interpreter 

(D) Query interpreter

Ans: (C)

Q.25 When an E-R diagram is mapped to tables, the representation is redundant for

(A) weak entity sets 

(B) weak relationship sets

(C) strong entity sets 

(D) strong relationship sets

Ans: (B)

Operating System MCQ

 Q.1 The field that contains a segment index or an internal index is called

(A) target datum 

(B) target offset

(C) segment field 

(D) fix dat

Ans: (A)

Q.2 A program in execution is called

(A) process 

(B) function

(C) CPU 

(D) Memory

Ans: (A)

Q.3 Jobs which are admitted to the system for processing is called

(A) long-term scheduling 

(B) short-term scheduling

(C) medium-term scheduling 

(D) queuing

Ans: (A)

Q.4 A set of techniques that allow to execute a program which is not entirely in memory is called

(A) demand paging 

(B) virtual memory

(C) auxiliary memory 

(D) secondary memory

Ans: (B)

Q.5 SSTF stands for

(A) Shortest-Seek-time-first scheduling 

(B) small – small-time-first

(C) simple-seek-time-first 

(D) small-simple-time-first scheduling

Ans: (A)

Q.6 Before proceeding with its execution, each process must acquire all the resources it needs is called

(A) hold and wait 

(B) No pre-emption

(C) circular wait 

(D) starvation

Ans: (A)

Q.7 Virtual memory is

(A) simple to implement

(B) used in all major commercial operating systems

(C) less efficient in utilization of memory

(D) useful when fast I/O devices are not available

Ans: (B)

Q.8 Relocation bits used by relocating loader are specified by

(A) Relocating loader itself 

(B) Assembler or Translator

(C) Macro processor 

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Ans: (B)

Q.9 Resolution of externally defined symbols is performed by

(A) Linker 

(B) Loader

(C) Compiler 

(D) Editor

Ans: (A)

Q.10 Relocatable programs

(A) cannot be used with fixed partitions

(B) can be loaded almost anywhere in memory

(C) do not need a linker

(D) can be loaded only at one specific location

Ans: (B)

Q.11 Page stealing

(A) is a sign of efficient system

(B) is taking page frames other working sets

(C) should be the tuning goal

(D) is taking larger disk spaces for pages paged out

Ans: (B)

Q.12 The total time to prepare a disk drive mechanism for a block of data to be read from is its

(A) latency

(B) latency plus transmission time

(C) latency plus seek time

(D) latency plus seek time plus transmission time

Ans: (C)

Q.13 To avoid race condition, the maximum number of processes that may be

simultaneously inside the critical section is

(A) zero 

(B) one

(C) two 

(D) more than two

Ans: (B)

Q.14 The memory allocation scheme subject to “external” fragmentation is

(A) segmentation 

(B) swapping

(C) pure demand paging 

(D) multiple fixed contiguous partitions

Ans: (A)

Q.15 Page fault frequency in an operating system is reduced when the

(A) processes tend to the I/O-bound

(B) size of pages is reduced

(C) processes tend to be CPU-bound

(D) locality of reference is applicable to the process

Ans: (D)

Q.16 In which of the following page replacement policies Balady’s anomaly occurs?

(A) FIFO 

(B) LRU

(C) LFU 

(D) NRU

Ans: (A)

Q.17 Which of the following are language processors?

(A) Assembler 

(B) Compiler

(C) Interpreter 

(D) All of the above

Ans: (D)

Q.18 Virtual memory can be implemented with

(A) Segmentation 

(B) Paging

(C) None 

(D) all of the above

Ans: (D)

Q.19 Recognition of basic syntactic constructs through reductions, this task is performed by

(A) Lexical analysis 

(B) Syntax analysis

(C) Semantic analysis 

(D) Structure analysis

Ans: (B)

Q.20 A grammar for a programming language is a formal description of

(A) Syntax 

(B) Semantics

(C) Structure 

(D) Code

Ans: (C)

Q.21 ___________ is a technique of temporarily removing inactive programs from the memory of computer system

(A) Swapping 

(B) Spooling

(C) Semaphore 

(D) Scheduler

Ans: (A)

Q.22 ___________ is a technique of improving the priority of process waiting in Queue for CPU allocation

(A) Starvation 

(B) Aging

(C) Revocation 

(D) Relocation

Ans: (B)

Q.23 ________ is the time required by a sector to reach below read/write head.

(A) Seek Time 

(B) Latency Time

(C) Access time 

(D) None

Ans: (B)

Q.24 Which of the following is most general phase structured grammar?

(A) Context – Sensitive 

(B) Regular

(C) Context – Free 

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Q.25 File record length

(A) Should always be fixed

(B) Should always be variable

(C) Depends upon the size of file

(D) Should be chosen to match the data characteristics.

Ans: (D)

Q.26 A public key encryption system

(A) Allows only the correct receiver to decode the data

(B) Allows only one to decode the transmission.

(C) Allows only the correct sender to decode the data.

(D) Does not encode the data before transmitting it.

Ans: (A)

Operating System MCQ

 Q.1 The “blocking factor” of a file is

(A) The number of blocks accessible to a file

(B) The number of blocks allocated to a file

(C) The number of logical records in one physical record

(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Q.2 Which of these is a component of a process precedence sequence?

(A) Process name 

(B) Sequence operator ‘;’

(C) Concurrency operator ‘,’ 

(D) All of the above

Ans: (D)

Q.3 Which amongst the following is valid syntax of the Fork and Join Primitive?

(A) Fork <label> 

(B) Fork <label>Join <var> Join <label>

(C) For <var> 

(D) Fork <var>Join <var> join <var>

Ans: (A)

Q.4 Nested Macro calls are expanded using the

(A) FIFO rule (First in first out) 

(B) LIFO (Last in First out)

(C) FILO rule (First in last out) 

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Q.5 A parser which is a variant of top-down parsing without backtracking is

(A) Recursive Descend. 

(B) Operator Precedence.

(C) LL(1) parser. 

(D) LALR Parser.

Ans: (A)

Q.6 The expansion of nested macro calls follows

(A) FIFO rule. 

(B) LIFO rule.

(C) LILO rule. 

(D) priority rule.

Ans: (B)

Q.7 In a two-pass assembler, the task of the Pass II is to

(A) separate the symbol, mnemonic opcode and operand fields.

(B) build the symbol table.

(C) construct intermediate code.

(D) synthesize the target program.

Ans: (D)

Q.8 A linker program

(A) places the program in the memory for the purpose of execution.

(B) relocates the program to execute from the specific memory area allocated to it.

(C) links the program with other programs needed for its execution.

(D) interfaces the program with the entities generating its input data.

Ans: (C)

Q.9 Which scheduling policy is most suitable for a time-shared operating system

(A) Shortest-job First. 

(B) Elevator.

(C) Round-Robin. 

(D) First-Come-First-Serve.

Ans: (C)

Q.10 A critical section is a program segment

(A) which should run in a certain specified amount of time.

(B) which avoids deadlocks.

(C) where shared resources are accessed.

(D) which must be enclosed by a pair of semaphore operations, P and V.

Ans: (C)

Q.11 An operating system contains 3 user processes each requiring 2 units of resource

R .The minimum number of units of R such that no deadlocks will ever arise is

(A) 4. 

(B) 3.

(C) 5. 

(D) 6.

Ans: (A)

Q.12 Locality of reference implies that the page reference being made by a process

(A) will always be to the page used in the previous page reference.

(B) is likely to be the one of the pages used in the last few page references.

(C) will always be to one of the pages existing in memory.

(D)will always lead to a page fault.

Ans: (B)

Q.13 Which of these is not a part of Synthesis phase

(A) Obtain machine code corresponding to the mnemonic from the Mnemonics table

(B) Obtain address of a memory operand from the symbol table

(C) Perform LC processing

(D) Synthesize a machine instruction or the machine form of a constant

Ans: (C)

Q.14 The syntax of the assembler directive EQU is

(A) EQU <address space> 

(B) <symbol>EQU<address space>

(C) <symbol>EQU 

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Q.15 The following features are needed to implement top down parsing

(A) Source string marker

(B) Prediction making mechanism

(C) Matching and Backtracking mechanism

(D) All of the above

Ans: (D)

Q.16 A macro definition consists of

(A) A macro prototype statement 

(B) One or more model statements

(C) Macro pre-processor statements 

(D) All of the above

Ans: (D)

Q.17 The main reason to encrypt a file is to ______________.

(A) Reduce its size 

(B) Secure it for transmission

(C) Prepare it for backup 

(D) Include it in the start-up sequence

Ans: (B)

Q.18 Which of the following is not a key piece of information, stored in single page table entry, assuming pure paging and virtual memory

(A) Frame number

(B) A bit indicating whether the page is in physical memory or on the disk

(C) A reference for the disk block that stores the page

(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Q.19 A UNIX device driver is

(A) Structured into two halves called top half and bottom half

(B) Three equal partitions

(C) Unstructured

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Q.20 The following is not a layer of IO management module

(A) PIOCS (Physical Input Output Control System)

(B) LIOCS (Logical Input Output Control System)

(C) FS (File System)

(D) MCS (Management Control System)

Ans: (D)

Q.21 Which amongst the following is not a valid page replacement policy?

(A) LRU policy (Least Recently Used)

(B) FIFO policy (First in first out)

(C) RU policy (Recurrently used)

(D) Optimal page replacement policy

Ans: (C)

Q.22 Consider a program with a linked origin of 5000. Let the memory area allocated to it have the start address of 70000. Which amongst the following will be the value to be loaded in relocation register?

(A) 20000 

(B) 50000

(C) 70000 

(D) 90000

Ans: (None of the above choice in correct. )

Q.23 An assembly language is a

(A) low level programming language

(B) Middle level programming language

(C) High level programming language

(D) Internet based programming language

Ans: (A)

Q.24 TII stands for

(A) Table of incomplete instructions

(B) table of information instructions

(C) translation of instructions information

(D) translation of information instruction

Ans: (A)

Q.25 An analysis, which determines the syntactic structure of the source statement, is called

(A) Sementic analysis 

(B) process analysis

(C) Syntax analysis 

(D) function analysis

Ans: (C)

Q.26 Action implementing instruction’s meaning are a actually carried out by

(A) Instruction fetch

(B) Instruction decode

(C) instruction execution

(D) Instruction program

Ans: (C)

Operating system MCQ

Q.1 Translator for low level programming language were termed as

(A) Assembler 

(B) Compiler

(C) Linker 

(D) Loader

Ans: (A)

Q.2 Analysis which determines the meaning of a statement once its grammatical structure

becomes known is termed as

(A) Semantic analysis 

(B) Syntax analysis

(C) Regular analysis 

(D) General analysis

Ans: (A)

Q.3 Load address for the first word of the program is called

(A) Linker address origin 

(B) load address origin

(C) Phase library 

(D) absolute library

Ans: (B)

Q.4 Symbolic names can be associated with

(A) Information 

(B) data or instruction

(C) operand 

(D) mnemonic operation

Ans: (B)

Q.5 The translator which perform macro expansion is called a

(A) Macro processor 

(B) Macro pre-processor

(C) Micro pre-processor 

(D) assembler

Ans: (B)

Q.6 Shell is the exclusive feature of

(A) UNIX 

(B) DOS

(C) System software 

(D) Application software

Ans: (A)

Q.7 A program in execution is called

(A) Process 

(B) Instruction

(C) Procedure 

(D) Function

Ans: (A)

Q.8 Interval between the time of submission and completion of the job is called

(A) Waiting time 

(B) Turnaround time

(C) Throughput 

(D) Response time

Ans: (B)

Q.9 A scheduler which selects processes from secondary storage device is called

(A) Short term scheduler. 

(B) Long term scheduler.

(C) Medium term scheduler. 

(D) Process scheduler.

Ans: (C)

Q.10 The scheduling in which CPU is allocated to the process with least CPU-burst time is called

(A) Priority Scheduling 

(B) Shortest job first Scheduling

(C) Round Robin Scheduling 

(D) Multilevel Queue Scheduling

Ans: (B)

Q.11 The term ‘page traffic’ describes

(A) number of pages in memory at a given instant.

(B) number of papers required to be brought in at a given page request.

(C) the movement of pages in and out of memory.

(D) number of pages of executing programs loaded in memory.

Ans: (C)

Q.12 The “turn-around” time of a user job is the

(A) time since its submission to the time its results become available.

(B) time duration for which the CPU is allotted to the job.

(C) total time taken to execute the job.

(D) time taken for the job to move from assembly phase to completion phase.

Ans: (C)

Q.13 Which of the following can be used as a criterion for classification of data

structures used in language processing.

(A) nature of a data structure 

(B) purpose of a data structure

(C) lifetime of a data structure 

(D) all of the above.

Ans: (D)

Q.14 Memory utilization factor shall be computed as follows

(A) memory in use/allocated memory.

(B) memory in use/total memory connected.

(C) memory allocated/free existing memory.

(D) memory committed/total memory available.

Ans: (B)

Q.15 Program ‘preemption’ is

(A) forced de allocation of the CPU from a program which is executing on the CPU.

(B) release of CPU by the program after completing its task.

(C) forced allotment of CPU by a program to itself.

(D) a program terminating itself due to detection of an error.

Ans: (A)

Q.16 An assembler is

(A) programming language dependent.

(B) syntax dependant.

(C) machine dependant.

(D) data dependant.

Ans: (C)

Q.17 Which of the following is not a fundamental process state

(A) ready 

(B) terminated

(C) executing 

(D) blocked

Ans: (D)

Q.18 ‘LRU’ page replacement policy is

(A) Last Replaced Unit. 

(B) Last Restored Unit.

(C) Least Recently Used. 

(D) Least Required Unit.

Ans: (C)

Q.19 Which of the following is true?

(A) Block cipher technique is an encryption technique.

(B) Steam cipher technique is an encryption technique.

(C) Both (A) and (B).

(D) Neither of (A) and (B).

Ans: (C)

Q.20 Which of the following approaches do not require knowledge of the system state?

(A) deadlock detection. 

(B) deadlock prevention.

(C) deadlock avoidance. 

(D) none of the above.

Ans: (D)

Q.21 Program generation activity aims at

(A) Automatic generation of program

(B) Organize execution of a program written in PL

(C) Skips generation of program

(D) Speedens generation of program

Ans: (A)

Q.22 Which amongst the following is not an advantage of Distributed systems?

(A) Reliability 

(B) Incremental growth

(C) Resource sharing 

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Q.23 An imperative statement

(A) Reserves areas of memory and associates names with them

(B) Indicates an action to be performed during execution of assembled program

(C) Indicates an action to be performed during optimization

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Q.24 Which of the following loader is executed when a system is first turned on or restarted

(A) Boot loader 

(B) Compile and Go loader

(C) Bootstrap loader 

(D) Relating loader

Ans: (C)

Q.25 Poor response time is usually caused by

(A) Process busy

(B) High I/O rates

(C) High paging rates

(D) Any of the above

Ans: (D)

Q.26 “Throughput” of a system is

(A) Number of programs processed by it per unit time

(B) Number of times the program is invoked by the system

(C) Number of requests made to a program by the system

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)