Technical Aptitude

1. A 2MB PCM (pulse code modulation) has
a) 32 channels
b) 30 voice channels & 1 signaling channel.
c) 31 voice channels & 1 signaling channel.
d) 32 channels out of which 30 voice channels, 1 signaling channel, & 1 Synchronization channel.
Ans: (c)

2. Time taken for 1 satellite hop in voice communication is
a) 1/2 second b) 1 seconds c) 4 seconds d) 2 seconds
Ans: (a)

3. Max number of satellite hops allowed in voice communication is:
a) only one b) more than one c) two hops d) four hops
Ans: (c)

4. What is the maximum Decimal number that can be accommodated in a byte?
a) 128 b) 256 c) 255 d) 512
Ans: (c)

5. Conditional results after execution of an instruction in a micro processor is stored in
a) register b) accumulator c) flag register d) Program Status Word
Ans: (d)

6. Frequency at which VOICE is sampled is
a) 4 Khz b) 8 Khz c) 16 Khz d) 64 Khz
Ans: (a)

7. Line of Sight is
a) Straight Line
b) Parabolic
c) Tx & Rx should be visible to each other
d) none
Ans: (c)

8. Purpose of PC (Program Counter) in a Microprocessor is
a) To store address of TOS (Top Of Stack)
b) To store address of next instruction to be executed.
c) Count the number of instructions.
d) To store base address of the stack.
Ans: (b)

9. What action is taken when the processor under execution is interrupted by a non-maskable interrupt?
a) Processor serves the interrupt request after completing the execution of the current instruction.
b) Processor serves the interrupt request after completing the current task.
c) Processor serves the interrupt request immediately.
d) Processor serving the interrupt request depends upon the priority of the current task under execution.
Ans: (a)

10. The status of the Kernel is
a) task b) process c) not defined. d) None of the above.
Ans: (b)

11. To send a data packet using datagram , connection will be established
a) before data transmission.
b) connection is not established before data transmission
c) no connection is required.
d) none of the above.
Ans: (c)

12. Word alignment is
a) Aligning the address to the next word boundary of the machine.
b) Aligning to even boundary.
c) Aligning to word boundary.
d) None of the above.
Ans: (a)

13 When a 'C' function call is made, the order in which parameters passed to the function are pushed into the stack is
a) left to right b) right to left
c) bigger variables are moved first than the smaller variables.
d) smaller variables are moved first than the bigger ones. e) none of the above.
Ans: (b)

14 What is the type of signaling used between two exchanges?
a) inband
b) common channel signaling
c) any of the above
d) none of the above.
Ans: (a)

15 Buffering is
a) the process of temporarily storing the data to allow for small variation in device speeds
b) a method to reduce cross talks
c) storage of data within transmitting medium until the receiver is ready to receive.
d) a method to reduce routing overhead.
Ans: (a)

16. Memory allocation of variables declared in a program is
a) allocated in RAM.
b) allocated in ROM.
c) allocated on stack.
d) assigned to registers.
Ans: (c)

17. A software that allows a personal computer to pretend as a computer terminal is
a) terminal adapter
b) bulletin board
c) modem
d) terminal emulation
Ans: (d)

18. Find the output of the following program
int *p,*q;
p=(int *)1000;
q=(int *)2000;
printf("%d",(q-p));
Ans: 500

19. Which addressing mode is used in the following statements?
(a) MVI B, 55
(b) MOV B, A
(c) MOV M, A
Ans. (a) Immediate addressing mode.
(b) Register Addressing Mode
(c) Direct addressing mode

20. RS-232C standard is used in _____________.
Ans. Serial I/O

21. Memory. Management in Operating Systems is done by
a) Memory Management Unit
b) Memory management software of the Operating System
c) Kernel
Ans: (b)

22. What is done for a Push opertion?
Ans: SP is decremented and then the value is stored.

23. Binary equivalent of 52
Ans. 110100

24. Hexadecimal equivalent of 3452
Ans. D7C

25. Explain Just In Time Concept ?
Ans. Elimination of waste by purchasing manufacturing exactly when needed

26. A good way of unit testing s/w program is
Ans. User test

27. OOT uses
Ans. Encapsulated of detect methods

28.EDI useful in
Ans. Electronic Transmission

29. MRPII different from MRP
Ans. Modular version of man redundant initials

30. Hard disk time for R/W head to move to correct sector
Ans. Latency Time

31. The percentage of times a page number bound in associate register is called
Ans. Bit ratio

32. Expand MODEM
Ans. Modulator and Demodulator

33. RDBMS file system can be defined as
Ans. Interrelated

34. Super Key is
Ans. Primary key and Attribute

35. Windows 95 supports
(a) Multiuser (b) n tasks (c) Both (d) None
Ans. (a)

36.In the command scanf, h is used for
Ans. Short int

37.A process is defined as
Ans. Program in execution

38.A thread is
Ans. Detachable unit of executable code)

39.What is the advantage of Win NT over Win 95
Ans. Robust and secure

40.How is memory management done in Win95
Ans. Through paging and segmentation

41.What is meant by polymorphism
Ans. Redefinition of a base class method in a derived class

42.What is the essential feature of inheritance
Ans. All properties of existing class are derived

43.What does the protocol FTP do
Ans. Transfer a file b/w stations with user authentication

44.In the transport layer ,TCP is what type of protocol
Ans. Connection oriented

45.Why is a gateway used
Ans. To connect incompatible networks

46.How is linked list implemented
Ans. By referential structures

47.What method is used in Win95 in multitasking
Ans. Non preemptive check

48.What is a semaphore
Ans. A method synchronization of multiple processes

49.What is the precedence order from high to low, of the symbols ( ) ++ /
Ans.( ) , ++, /

50.Preorder of A*(B+C)/D-G
Ans.*+ABC/-DG

51.What is the efficiency of merge sort
Ans. O(n log n)

52.In which layer are routers used
Ans. In network layer

53.Which of the following sorting algorithm has average sorting behavior -- Bubble sort, merge sort, heap sort, exchange sort
Ans. Heap sort

54.In binary search tree which traversal is used for getting ascending order values--Inorder , post order, preorder
Ans. Inorder

55.What are device drivers used for
Ans.To provide software for enabling the hardware

56.What is fork command in unix
Ans. System call used to create process

57.What is make command in unix
Ans. Used for creation of more than one file

58.In unix .profile contains
Ans. Start up program

59.In unix 'ls 'stores contents in
Ans.inode block

60. Which of the following involves context switch,
(a) system call
(b) priviliged instruction
(c) floating poitnt exception
(d) all the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: (a)

61. In OST, terminal emulation is done in
(a) sessions layer
(b) application layer
(c) presentation layer
(d) transport layer
Ans: (b)

62. For 1 MB memory, the number of address lines required,
(a)11 (b)16 (c)22 (d) 24
Ans. (b)

63. Semaphore is used for
(a) synchronization (b) dead-lock avoidance (c) box (d) none
Ans. (a)

64. Which holds true for the following statement
class c: public A, public B
a) 2 member in class A, B should not have same name
b) 2 member in class A, C should not have same name
c) both
d) none
Ans. (a)

65.Preproconia.. does not do which one of the following
(a) macro
(b) conditional compliclation
(c) in type checking
(d) including load file
Ans. (c)

66. Piggy backing is a technique for
a) Flow control
b) Sequence
c) Acknowledgement
d) retransmition
Ans. (c)

67. Which is not a memory management scheme?
a) buddy system
b) swapping
c) monitors
d) paging
Ans : c

68. There was a circuit given using three nand gates with two inputs and one output. Find the output.
a) OR b) AND c) XOR d) NOT
Ans. (a)

69. Integrated check value (ICV) are used as:
Ans. The client computes the ICV and then compares it with the sender’s value.

70. When applets are downloaded from web sites, a byte verifier performs _________?
Ans. Status check.

71. An IP/IPX packet received by a computer using... having IP/IPX both how the packet is handled.
Ans. Read the, field in the packet header with to send IP or IPX protocol.

72. The UNIX shell....
a) does not come with the rest of the system
b) forms the interface between the user and the kernal
c) does not give any scope for programming
d) does not allow calling one program from with in another
e) all of the above
Ans. (b)

73. In UNIX a files i-node......?
Ans. Is a data structure that defines all specifications of a file like the file size, number of lines to a file, permissions etc.

74. The very first process created by the kernel that runs till the kernel process is halts is
a) Init b) Getty c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these
Ans. (a)

75. In the process table entry for the kernel process, the process id value is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 255 (e) it does not have a process table entry
Ans. (a)

76. Which of the following API is used to hide a window
a) ShowWindow
b) EnableWindow c) MoveWindow
d) SetWindowPlacement
e) None of the above
Ans. (a)

77. Which function is the entry point for a DLL in MS Windows 3.1
a) Main b) Winmain c) Dllmain d) Libmain e) None
Ans. (b)

78. The standard source for standard input, standard output and standard error is
a) the terminal b) /dev/null
c) /usr/you/input, /usr/you/output/, /usr/you/error respectively d) None
Ans. (a)

79. The redirection operators > and >>
a) do the same function
b) differ : > overwrites, while >> appends
c) differ : > is used for input while >> is used for output
d) differ : > write to any file while >> write only to standard output e) None of these
Ans. (b)

80. The command grep first second third /usr/you/myfile
a) prints lines containing the words first, second or third from the file /usr/you/myfile
b) searches for lines containing the pattern first in the files second, third, and /usr/you/myfile and prints them
c) searches the files /usr/you/myfiel and third for lines containing the words first or second and prints them
d) replaces the word first with the word second in the files third and /usr/you/myfile
e) None of the above
Ans. (b)

81. You are creating a Index on EMPNO column in the EMPLOYEE table. Which statement will you use?
a) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee, empno;
b) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx FOR employee, empno;
c) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee(empno);
d) CREATE emp_empno_idx INdEX ON employee(empno);
Ans. C

82. Which program construct must return a value?
a) Package
b) Function
c) Anonymous block
d) Stored Procedure
e) Application Procedure
Ans. B

83. Which Statement would you use to remove the EMPLOYEE_Id_PK PRIMARY KEY constraint and all depending constraints from the EMPLOYEE table?
a) ALTER TABLE employee DROP PRIMARY KEY CASCADE;
b) ALTER TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY CASCAdE;
c) MOdIFY TABLE employee dROP CONSTRAINT employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
d) ALTER TABLE employee dROP PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
e) MOdIFY TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
Ans. A

84. Which three commands cause a transaction to end? (Choose three)
a) ALTER b) GRANT c) DELETE d) INSERT e) UPDATE f) ROLLBACK
Ans. a ,b ,f

85. Under which circumstance should you create an index on a table?
a) The table is small.
b) The table is updated frequently.
c) A columns values are static and contain a narrow range of values
d) Two columns are consistently used in the WHERE clause join condition of SELECT statements.
Ans.d

86. What was the first name given to Java Programming Language.
a) Oak – Java b) Small Talk c) Oak d) None
Ans.a

87.When a bicycle is in motion, the force of friction exerted by the ground on the two wheels is such that it acts
(a) In the backward direction on the front wheel and in the forward direction on the rear wheel.
(b) In the forward direction on the front wheel and in the backward direction on the rear wheel.
(c) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.
(d) In the backward direction on both the front and rear wheels.
Ans. (d)

88. A certain radioactive element A, has a half life = t seconds. In (t/2) seconds the fraction of the initial quantity of the element so far decayed is nearly
(a) 29% (b) 15% (c) 10% (d) 45%
Ans. (a)

89. Which of the following plots would be a straight line?
(a) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of time
(b) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of number of decaying nuclei
(c) Decay rate against time
(d) Number of decaying nuclei against time
Ans. (b)

90. A radioactive element x has an atomic number of 100. It decays directly into an element y which decays directly into element z. In both processes a charged particle is emitted. Which of the following statements would be true?
(a) y has an atomic number of 102
(b) y has an atomic number of 101
(c) z has an atomic number of 100
(d) z has an atomic number of 101
Ans. (b)

91. If the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals then a/c, b/a, c/b are in
(a) AP (b) GP (c) HP (d) None of these
Ans. (c)

92. A man speaks the truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a die and reports it to be a 6. What is the probability of it being a 6?
(a) 3/8 (b) 5/8 (c) ¾ (d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

93. If cos2A + cos2B + cos2C = 1 then ABC is a
(a) Right angle triangle
(b) Equilateral triangle
(c) All the angles are acute
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

94. Image of point (3, 8) in the line x + 3y = 7 is
(a) (-1,-4) (b) (-1,4) (c) (2,-4) (d) (-2,-4)
Ans. (a)

95. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number (b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Sometimes more than and sometimes equals to its atomic number
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

96. The maximum KE of the photoelectron emitted from a surface is dependent on
(a) The intensity of incident radiation
(b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface
Ans. (c)

97. Which of the following is not an essential condition for interference?
(a) The two interfering waves must be propagated in almost the same direction or the two interfering waves must intersect at a very small angle
(b) The waves must have the same time period and wavelength
(c) Amplitude of the two waves should be the same
(d) The interfering beams of light must originate from the same source
Ans. (c)

98. When X-Ray photons collide with electrons
(a) They slow down
(b) Their mass increases
(c) Their wave length increases
(d) Their energy decreases
Ans. (c)

99. An electron emits energy
(a) Because its in orbit
(b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits
Ans. (b)

100. How many bonds are present in CO2 molecule?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 4
Ans. (d)
_____________________________________________________________________________________________

UNIX O/S Tutorial

1. How are devices represented in UNIX?

All devices are represented by files called special files that are located in/dev directory. Thus, device files and other files are named and accessed in the same way. A 'regular file' is just an ordinary data file in the disk. A 'block special file' represents a device with characteristics similar to a disk (data transfer in terms of blocks). A 'character special file' represents a device with characteristics similar to a keyboard (data transfer is by stream of bits in sequential order).

2. What is 'inode'?

All UNIX files have its description stored in a structure called 'inode'. The inode contains info about the file-size, its location, time of last access, time of last modification, permission and so on. Directories are also represented as files and have an associated inode. In addition to descriptions about the file, the inode contains pointers to the data blocks of the file. If the file is large, inode has indirect pointer to a block of pointers to additional data blocks (this further aggregates for larger files). A block is typically 8k.

Inode consists of the following fields:

 File owner identifierØ

 File typeØ

 File access permissionsØ

 File access timesØ

 Number of linksØ

 File sizeØ

 Location of the file dataØ

3. Brief about the directory representation in UNIX

A Unix directory is a file containing a correspondence between filenames and inodes. A directory is a special file that the kernel maintains. Only kernel modifies directories, but processes can read directories. The contents of a directory are a list of filename and inode number pairs. When new directories are created, kernel makes two entries named '.' (refers to the directory itself) and '..' (refers to parent directory).

System call for creating directory is mkdir (pathname, mode).

4. What are the Unix system calls for I/O?

 open(pathname,flag,mode) - open fileØ

 creat(pathname,mode) - create fileØ

 close(filedes) - close an open fileØ

 read(filedes,buffer,bytes) - read data from an open fileØ

 write(filedes,buffer,bytes) - write data to an open fileØ

 lseek(filedes,offset,from) - position an open fileØ

 dup(filedes) - duplicate an existing file descriptorØ

 dup2(oldfd,newfd) - duplicate to a desired file descriptorØ

 fcntl(filedes,cmd,arg) - change properties of an open fileØ

 ioctl(filedes,request,arg) - change the behaviour of an open fileØ

The difference between fcntl anf ioctl is that the former is intended for any open file, while the latter is for device-specific operations.

5. How do you change File Access Permissions?

Every file has following attributes:

 owner's user ID ( 16 bit integer )Ø

 owner's group ID ( 16 bit integer )Ø

 File access mode wordØ

'r w x -r w x- r w x'

(user permission-group permission-others permission)

r-read, w-write, x-execute

To change the access mode, we use chmod(filename,mode).

Example 1:

To change mode of myfile to 'rw-rw-r--' (ie. read, write permission for user - read,write permission for group - only read permission for others) we give the args as:

chmod(myfile,0664) .

Each operation is represented by discrete values

'r' is 4

'w' is 2

'x' is 1

Therefore, for 'rw' the value is 6(4+2).

Example 2:

To change mode of myfile to 'rwxr--r--' we give the args as:

chmod(myfile,0744).

6. What are links and symbolic links in UNIX file system?

A link is a second name (not a file) for a file. Links can be used to assign more than one name to a file, but cannot be used to assign a directory more than one name or link filenames on different computers.

Symbolic link 'is' a file that only contains the name of another file.Operation on the symbolic link is directed to the file pointed by the it.Both the limitations of links are eliminated in symbolic links.

Commands for linking files are:

Link ln filename1 filename2

Symbolic link ln -s filename1 filename2

7. What is a FIFO?

FIFO are otherwise called as 'named pipes'. FIFO (first-in-first-out) is a special file which is said to be data transient. Once data is read from named pipe, it cannot be read again. Also, data can be read only in the order written. It is used in interprocess communication where a process writes to one end of the pipe (producer) and the other reads from the other end (consumer).

8. How do you create special files like named pipes and device files?

The system call mknod creates special files in the following sequence.

1. kernel assigns new inode,

2. sets the file type to indicate that the file is a pipe, directory or special file,

3. If it is a device file, it makes the other entries like major, minor device numbers.

For example:

If the device is a disk, major device number refers to the disk controller and minor device number is the disk.

9. Discuss the mount and unmount system calls

The privileged mount system call is used to attach a file system to a directory of another file system; the unmount system call detaches a file system. When you mount another file system on to your directory, you are essentially splicing one directory tree onto a branch in another directory tree. The first argument to mount call is the mount point, that is , a directory in the current file naming system. The second argument is the file system to mount to that point. When you insert a cdrom to your unix system's drive, the file system in the cdrom automatically mounts to /dev/cdrom in your system.

10. How does the inode map to data block of a file?

Inode has 13 block addresses. The first 10 are direct block addresses of the first 10 data blocks in the file. The 11th address points to a one-level index block. The 12th address points to a two-level (double in-direction) index block. The 13th address points to a three-level(triple in-direction)index block. This provides a very large maximum file size with efficient access to large files, but also small files are accessed directly in one disk read.

11. What is a shell?

A shell is an interactive user interface to an operating system services that allows an user to enter commands as character strings or through a graphical user interface. The shell converts them to system calls to the OS or forks off a process to execute the command. System call results and other information from the OS are presented to the user through an interactive interface. Commonly used shells are sh,csh,ks etc.

____________________________________________________________________________________________

Microprocessor - II

1. Access time is faster for
a) ROM b) SRAM c) DRAM

2. In 8279 Strobed input mode, the control line goes low. The data on return lines is strobed in the ____.
a) FIFO byte by byte b) FILO byte by byte c) LIFO byte by byte
d) LILO byte by byte.

3. ___ bit in ICW1 indicates whether the 8259A is cascade mode or not?
a) LTIM=0 b) LTIM=1 c) SNGL=0 d) SNGL=1

4. In 8255, under the I/O mode of operation we have __ modes. Under which mode
will have the following features
i) A 5 bit control port is available.
ii) Three I/O lines are available at Port C.
a) 3, Mode2 b) 2, Mode 2 c) 4, Mode 3 d) 3, Mode 2

5. In ADC 0808 if _______ pin high enables output.
a) EOC b) I/P0-I/P7 c) SOC d) OE

6. In 8279, a scanned sensor matrix mode, if a sensor changes its state, the ___ line goes ____ to interrupt the CPU.
a) CS, high b) A0, high c) IRQ, high d) STB, high

7. In 8279 Status Word, data is read when ________ pins are low, and write to the
display RAM with ____________ are low.

a) A0, CS, RD & A0, WR, CS. b) CS, WR, A0 & A0, CS, RD
c) A0, RD & WR, CS d) CS, RD & A0, CS.

8. In 8279, the keyboard entries are debounced and stored in an _________, that is
further accessed by the CPU to read the key codes.
a) 8-bit FIFO b) 8-byte FIFO c) 16 byte FIFO d) 16 bit FIFO

9. The 8279 normally provides a maximum of _____ seven segment display
interface with CPU.
a) 8 b) 16 c) 32 d) 18

10. For the most Static RAM the write pulse width should be at least
a) 10ns b) 60ns c) 300ns d) 1µs
11. BURST refresh in DRAM is also called as
a) Concentrated refresh b) distributed refresh c) Hidden refresh d) none

12. For the most Static RAM the maximum access time is about
a) 1ns b) 10ns c) 100ns d) 1µs

13. Which of the following statements on DRAM are correct?
i) Page mode read operation is faster than RAS read.
ii) RAS input remains active during column address strobe.
iii) The row and column addresses are strobed into the internal buffers using RAS
and CAS inputs respectively.
a) i & iii b) i & ii c) all d) iii

14. 8086 microprocessor is interfaced to 8253 a programmable interval timer. The
maximum number by which the clock frequency on one of the timers is divided by
a) 216 b) 28 c) 210 d) 220

15. 8086 is interfaced to two 8259s (Programmable interrupt controllers). If 8259s
are in master slave configuration the number of interrupts available to the 8086
microprocessor is
a) 8 b) 16 c) 15 d) 64

Microprocessor

1. Which interrupt has the highest priority?
a) INTR b) TRAP c) RST6.5

2. In 8085 name the 16 bit registers?
a) Stack pointer b) Program counter c) a & b

3. Which of the following is hardware interrupts?
a) RST5.5, RST6.5, RST7.5 b) INTR, TRAP c) a & b

4. What is the RST for the TRAP?
a) RST5.5 b) RST4.5 c) RST4

5. What are level Triggering interrupts?
a) INTR&TRAP b)RST6.5&RST5.5 c)RST7.5&RST6.5

6. Which interrupt is not level sensitive in 8085?
a) RST6.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt.
b) RST7.5 is a raising edge-trigging interrupt.
c) a & b.

7. What are software interrupts?
a) RST 0 - 7 b) RST 5.5 - 7.5 c) INTR, TRAP

8. Which stack is used in 8085?
a) FIFO b) LIFO c) FILO

9. Why 8085 processor is called an 8 bit processor?
a) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit ALU.
b) Because 8085 processor has 8 bit data bus.
c) a & b.

10. What is SIM?
a) Select Interrupt Mask b) Sorting Interrupt Mask c) Set Interrupt Mask.

11. RIM is used to check whether, ______
a) The write operation is done or not
b) The interrupt is Masked or not
c) a & b

12. What is meant by Maskable interrupts?
a) An interrupt which can never be turned off.
b) An interrupt that can be turned off by the programmer.
c) none

13. In 8086, Example for Non maskable interrupts are
a) Trap b) RST6.5 c) INTR

14. What does microprocessor speed depends on?
a) Clock b) Data bus width c) Address bus width

15. Can ROM be used as stack?
a) Yes b) No c) sometimes yes, sometimes no

16. Which processor structure is pipelined?
a) all x80 processors b) all x85 processors c) all x86 processors

17. Address line for RST3 is?
a) 0020H b) 0028H c) 0018H

18. In 8086 the overflow flag is set when
a) The sum is more than 16 bits
b) Signed numbers go out of their range after an arithmetic operation
c) Carry and sign flags are set
d) During subtraction

19. The advantage of memory mapped I/O over I/O mapped I/O is,
a) Faster
b) Many instructions supporting memory mapped I/O
c) Require a bigger address decoder
d) All the above

20. BHE of 8086 microprocessor signal is used to interface the
a) Even bank memory
b) Odd bank memory
c) I/O
d) DMA

21. In 8086 microprocessor the following has the highest priority among all type
interrupts.
a) NMI
b) DIV 0
c) TYPE 255
d) OVER FLOW

22. In 8086 microprocessor one of the following statements is not true.
a) Coprocessor is interfaced in MAX mode
b) Coprocessor is interfaced in MIN mode
c) I/O can be interfaced in MAX / MIN mode
d) Supports pipelining

23. 8088 microprocessor differs with 8086 microprocessor in
a) Data width on the output
b) Address capability
c) Support of coprocessor
d) Support of MAX / MIN mode

24. Address line for TRAP is?
a) 0023H b) 0024H c) 0033H

IT Fundamentals - III

1. Which layers of the OSI model are included in the lower layers?
A. Application, Session, Presentation
B. Physical, Transport, Data Link
C. Data Link, Physical, Network
D. Session, Data Link, Physical
E. None of these

2. From smallest to largest, rank the following logical pieces of the database : data block, table space, extent, segment
A. table space, segment, extent, data block
B. data block, segment, extent, table space
C. Segment, extent, data block, table space
D. data block, extent, segment, table space
E. None of these

3. Where are cookies stored?
A. On the server
B. In web.xml
C. On the client
D. In HTML
E. None of these

4. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?
A. Through a power cable
B. From an external power supply
C. Directly from the computer's power supply
D. Through the USB cable
E. None of these

5. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?
A. The type of drivers that come with the mouse
B. The length of the mouse cord
C. The type of connector the mouse is equipped with
D. The number of buttons the mouse has
E. None of these

6. Programme that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called..................
A. Metasearch engines
B. Webcrawlers
C. Spiders
D. Hits
E. None of these

7. You are planning on using a single network that support 208 users. Which IP address class would you choose to be the most effect?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Class E

8. Which of the following options is not a JSP implicit object?
A. Out
B. In
C. Response
D. Page
E. None of these

9. In Oracle, which statement is true about segments?
A. Each table has its own segment
B. A segment is created every time an extent is created, extended, or altered
C. An index segment is created every time a table is created
D. A segment is deleted whenever a table is truncated
E. None of these

10. All of the following are basic principles of networks, except ...............
A. each computer must have a network card
B. there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
C. there must be at least one connecting device
D. each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
E. None of these

11. Which of the following could be a legitimate Media Access Control address?
A. 192.168.254.3
B. 3FA2.4756.F9A3
C. A5514
D. C1.3A.77.5B
E. None of these

12. The term, hypertext means .................
A. Non-sequential writing
B. Hypermedia
C. Blinking text
D. Text with heavy formatting
E. None of these

13. You receive an e-mail message that forms you that a terrible virus has been unleashed on the Internet and that you should warn all the people in your Address Book. Which of the following have you most likely encountered?
A. A virus hoax
B. A filter
C. A spam
D. A virus
E. A worm

14. If 20 people need to communicate using symmetric-key cryptography, .................symmetric keys are needed
A. 190
B. 200
C. 20
D. 19
E. 210

15. What should you do as soon as you have successfully created the data base and the data dictionary?
A. Open the data base for users to start adding data
B. Start adding a bunch of table space to allow users to use
C. Leave it running for a few days to make sure that nothing bad is going to happen
D. Shut it down and take a cold back up
E. None of these

16. Which of the following is the default mask of a class A IP address?
A. 255.0.0.255
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.0.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
E. None of these

17. What is Internet 2?
A. A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks
B. A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access
C. A new standard for Internet browsers
D. An association to develop advanced Internet technology
E. None of these

18. Which of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via at JSP action?
A. Servlet Request
B. Http Servlet Request
C. Servlet Response
D. Http Servlet Response
E. None of these

19. If you wanted to locate the hardware address to a local device, which protocol would you use?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. ICMP
D. PING
E. PONG

20. In oracle, which table space is the minimum required when creating a new data base?
A. Undo table space
B. Temporary table space
C. System table space
D. Users table space
E. None of these

21. Data space red sign is not terribly difficult if the .........................
A. data base is structured
B. data base is well- designed
C. data space has no data
D. data base is relatively small
E. data base is relatively large

22. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system's hard ware?
A. Bootstrap memory
B. Volatile memory
C. External mass memory
D. Static memory
E. Random access memory

23. Which of the following is not true about two-tier client-server data base architecture?
A. SQL statements are processed on the server
B. SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients
C. Business logic is mostly processed on clients
D. Business logic may be processed on the server
E. None of these

24. The process by which the structure of the data base is modified to eliminate hidden dependencies and repeating groups is .............
A. enforcing data integrity
B. enforcing referential integrity
C. indexing
D. normalization
E. None of these

25. Which of the following functions is not performed by TCP?
A. Flow control
B. Sequencing
C. Error checking
D. Sub netting
E. None of these

26. In oracle, who owns the data dictionary?
A. Oracle
B. SYS
C. The DBA
D. SYSTEM
E. None of these

27. The reason the data outputs of most ROM ICs are tri-state outputs is to .........
A. allow for three separate data input lines
B. allow the bi-directional flow of data between the bus lines and the ROM registers
C. permit the connection of many ROM chips to a common data bus
D. isolate the registers from the data bus during read operations
E. None of these

28. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first......................
A. drop the primary key
B. drop the table
C. drop the foreign key constraint
D. All of these
E. None of these

29. In the straight CGI approach to data-base connectivity on the Internet.....................
A. the external program is located between the client and the web server
B. the external program is located between the data base server and the data base
C. the external program is located between the web server and the data base server
D. there is no external program

30. What is the name of protocol used to eliminate loops?
A. Switching
B. ISL
C. Frame Tagging
D. Spanning Tree Protocol
E. Scanning

31. The effect of the ROLLBACK command in a transaction is the following.............................
A. undo all changes to the data base resulting from the execution of the transaction
B. undo the effects of the last UPDATE command
C. restore the content of the data base to its state at the end of the previous day
D. make sure that all changes to the data base are in effect
E. None of these

32. In Oracle, what is the default number of transactions that MAXTRANS is set to if not specified?
A. 512
B. 10
C. 40
D. 1
E. 255

33. To which pin on the RAM chip does the address decoder connect in order to signal which memory chip is being accessed?
A. The address input
B. The output enable
C. The chip enable
D. The data input
E. The data output

34. Which of the following switching methods provides the greatest frame through out?
A. Store-and-forward switching
B. Frame-tag switching
C. Cut-through switching
D. ISL switching
E. Store-and-backward switching

35. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
A. Cipher
B. Warded
C. Device
D. Tumbler.
E. Typelock

36. A gateway is .............................
A. a device that enables users to send information simultaneously over a network without slowing down transmission
B. an electronic device that connects several computing devices to a network
C. a point in one network that is an entrance point to another network
D. a device that links two or more segments of a network and helps direct traffic
E. None of these

37. Which of the following is considered a vulnerability of SNMP?
A. Clear text community strings
B. Its use of TCP
C. The fact that it is on by default in Windows 2000 server
D. The fact that it is on by default in Windows XP Professional
E. None of these

38. Network routing information distributed among routers is stored in which of the following?
A. Flash memory
B. Route table
C. Metric table
D. NVRAM
E. Router memory

39. If the destination did not receive a segment, how will the TCP host know to resend the information?
A. The ACK received will not include the segment number that was not received
B. The ACK received will include the segment number that was not received
C. The sending host will send a PACK to verify segment receipt
D. The destination host will send a YACK message back to the sending host
E. None of these

40. What are the effects of mixing RAM modules with different speed ratings?
A. The system runs at the speed of the slowest RAM stick
B. The system runs normally
C. The system runs at the speed of the memory bus
D. The system may not run, or it crashes periodically
E. None of these

41. What kind of scheme is the HTTP protocol?
A. Get/ put
B. Store/ forward
C. Queuing
D. Search/ return
E. Request/ response'

42. What type of error does a memory parity error create?
A. A fatal exception error
B. An NMI error
C. A corrupt windows operating system file
D. A GPF error
E. A GPA error

43. Which is not a part of the Oracle data base base block?
A. Header
B. Row directory
C. Data
D. Freelists
E. None of these

44. Which of the following cannot be used as the scope when using a Java Bean with JSP?
A. Page
B. Request
C. Session
D. Application
E. Response

45. Which of the following is used for integrity?
A. DES
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. SED
D. AES
E. MD5

46. What is ISL used for?
A. To allow an Ethernet interface to understand frame tags
B. To make two Ethernet interfaces appear as one
C. To connect an Ethernet switch with a high-speed core switch such as ATM
D. To allow simultaneous routing and switching
E. None of these

47. Which of the following describes programs that can run independently, travel from system and disrupt computer communications?
A. Trojans
B. Viruses
C. Idlers
D. Droppers
E. Worms

48. You need to configure a switch from a remote subnet. Which of the following must be configured on the switch?
A. Console port
B. IP
C. Hostname
D. SNMP
E. Default gateway

49. In Oracle, which is more appropriate to store a small list of values in a single column in each row in your address table?
A. ORACARRAY
B. Nested table
C. Index organised table
D. Index
E. VARRAY

50. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?
A. Visit Google's cached page to view the older copy
B. Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information
C. Visit a partner site of the organisation to see if it is there
D. Use the way back machine
E. None of these
____________________________________________________________________________________________________

Software Engineering

1. Software Engineering primarily aims on
a. Reliable software
b. Cost effective software
c. Reliable and cost effective software
d. Non of the above

2. A good specification should be
a. Unambiguous
b. Distinctly specific
c. Functional
d. None of the above

3. Which of the following is a tool in design phase?
a. Abstraction
b. Refinement
c. Information hiding
d. None of the above

4. In object oriented design of software, which of the following is not true?
a. Objects inherit the properties of the class
b. Classes are defined based on the attributes of objects
c. An object can belong to two classes
d. Classes are always different

5. Information hiding is to hide from user, details
a. That are relevant to him
b. That are irrelevant to him
c. That may be maliciously handled by him
d. That are confidential

6. Design phase includes
a. Data, architectural and procedural designs only
b. Architectural, procedural and interface designs only
c. Data, architectural and interface designs only
d. Data, architectural, interface and procedural designs

7. Data structure suitable for the application is discussed in
a. Data design
b. Architectural design
c. Procedural design
d. Interface design

8. Design phase will usually be
a. Top-down
b. Bottom-up
c. Random
d. Centre fringing

9. Assertions are conditions which are true at the point of execution
a. Always
b. Sometimes
c. Many times
d. No time

10. Assuming the existence of a start and end nodes for a program graph (PG), the total number of paths is equivalent to ________________ set of test data required to test software.
a. Minimum
b. Maximum
c. Optimum
d. Supremum

11. In a program graph (PG), if X is a if-then-else node and the number of paths from if part to end node is y and for else part is Z with the number of paths from strat node to end node is x, the total number of paths through X is
a. xy+z
b. xz+y
c. x+y+z
d. x(y+z)

12. If X is a case statement in a program graph (PG) with n cases instead of an if-then-else statement in the previous question with each case leading to only one path to end node, total number of paths through X is
a. x+n
b. x**n
c. x*log(n)
d. x*n

13. Structured programming codes include
a. Sequencing
b. Alteration
d. Multiple exit from loops

14. Which of the following is a desirable property of module?
a. Independency
b. Low cohesiveness
c. High coupling
d. Multifunctional

15. Which of the following types of maintenance takes the maximum chunk of the total maintenance effort in a typical commercial application environment?
a. Adaptive maintenance
b. Corrective maintenance
c. Preventive maintenance
d. Perfective maintenance

16. An important aspect in coding is
a. Readability
b. Productivity
c. To use as small memory space as possible
d. Brevity

17. One way to improve readability in coding is to
a. Avoid goto statement
b. Name variables and functions according to their use
c. Modularize the program
d. None of the above

18. The data flow model of an application mainly shows
a. The underlying data and the relationship among them
b. Processing requirements and he flow of the data
c. Decision and control information
d. Communication network structure

19. According to Brooks, if n is the number of programmers in a project team then the number of communication path is
a. n*(n-1)/2
b. n*log(n)
c. n
d. n*(n+1)/2

20. The extent to which the software can continue to operate correctly despite the introduction of invalid input is called as
a. Reliability
b. Robustness
c. Fault-tolerance
d. Portability

21. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Content coupling in a module is desirable
b. Logical cohesion in a module is desirable
c. Stamp coupling is preferred over functional coupling
d. None of the above

22. Configuration management is not concerned with
a. Controlling changes to the source code
b. Choice of hardware configuration for an application
c. Controlling documentation changes
d. Maintaining versions of software

23. The railway reservation system currently operational in India can be classified as a
a. Batch processing system
b. Real-time system
c. Online system
d. Expert system

24. Data flow diagram, regular expression and transition table can be combined to provide __________________ for functional specification OS system software
a. Decision table
b. Finite state automata
c. Event table
d. None of the above

25. A program P calls two subprograms P1 and P2. P1 can fail 50% times and P2 40% times P can fail
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 10%
d. 70%

26. Which of the following graph theoretic concept will be useful in software testing?
a. Cyclomatic number
b. Hamiltonian circuit
c. Eularian cycle
d. None of the above

27. In a decision table if there are 3 variables and 3 rules, implies
a. Specification may not be complete
b. Design could be faulty
c. Coding will be incorrect
d. All of the above

28. In unit testing of a module, it is found for a set of test data, at the maximum 90% of the code alone were tested with the probability of success 0.9. the reliability of the module is
a. Atleast greater than 0.9
b. Equal to 0.9
c. Atmost 0.81
d. Atleast 1/0.81

29. Which of the following testing methods is normally used as the acceptance test for a software system?
a. Regression testing
b. Integration testing
c. Unit testing
d. Functional testing

30. A computer program can often be a very satisfactory __________________ of a physical system such as road traffic conditions
a. Solution
b. Replacement
c. Stimulation
d. Model

31. On an average, the programmer months is given by 3.6*(KDSI)**1.2. If so, a project requiring one thousand source instruction will require
a. 3.6 PM
b. 0.36PM
c. 0.0036PM
d. 7.23PM

32. Considering a program graph(PG) with statement as vertices and control as edges, which of the following is not true for any program graph
a. PG is always acyclic
b. PG is always a directed graph
c. There won’t be any self loops
d. PG is always a connected graph

33. In object-oriented design of software, objects have
a. Attributes and name only
b. Operations and name only
c. Attributes, name and operations
d. None of the above
___________________________________________________________________________________________________

Operating System - I

Multiple Choice Questions in Operating System:

1. Which of the following is an example of a SPOOLED device?
a. The terminal used to enter the input data for a program being executed
b. The secondary memory device in virtual memory system
c. A line printer used to print the output of a number of jobs
d. None of the above

2. concurrent process are :
a. process that do not overlap in time
b. process that overlap in time
c. processes that executed by a processor at the same time
d. none of the above

3. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is
a. Block
b. Dispatch
c. Wakeup
d. None of the above

4. which of the following are real time operating system
a. an on-line railway reservation system
b. a process control system
c. aircraft control system
d. payroll processing system

5. Critical region is
a. A part of the operating system which is not allowed to be accessed by any process
b. A set of instructions that access common shared resource which exclude one another in time
c. The portion of the main memory which can be accessed only by one process at a time
d. None of the above

6. in a time sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the process goes from running state to the
a. BLOCKED state
b. READY state
c. SUSPENDED state
d. TERMINATED state

7. At a particular time, the value of a counting semaphore is 10. It will become 7 after
a. 3 V operations
b. 3 P operations
c. 5 V operations and 2 P operations
d. 13 P operations and 10 V operations

8. Supervisor call
a. is a call made by the supervisor of the system
b. is a call with control function
c. are privileged calls that are used to perform resource management functions, which are controlled by the operating system
d. is a call made by some one working in a root directory

9. Semaphores are used to solve the problem of
a. Race condition
b. Process synchronization
c. Mutual exclusion
d. None of the above

10. At a particular time of computation, the value of a counting semaphore is 7. Then 20 P operations and ‘x’ V operations were completed on this semaphore. If the final value of the semaphore is 5, x will be
a. 15
b. 22
c. 18
d. 13

11. Pre-emptive scheduling is the strategy of the temporarily suspending a running process
a. Before the CPU time slice expires
b. To allow starving process to run
c. When it requests I/O
d. None of the above

12. Mutual exclusion problem occurs between
a. Two disjoint process that do not interact
b. Process that share resources
c. Process that do not use the same resources
d. None of the above

13. Memory protection is no use in a
a. Single user system
b. Non-multiprogramming system
c. Non-multitasking system
d. None of the above

14. Some computer system supports dual mode operation- the user mode and the supervisor or monitor mode. These refers to the modes
a. by which user program handle their data
b. by which the operating system execute user programs
c. in which the processor and the associates hardware operate
d. of memory access

15. Fence register is used for
a. CPU protection
b. Memory protection
c. File protection
d. All of the above

16. Which of the following is a service not supported by the operating system?
a. Protection
b. Accounting
c. Compilation
d. I/O operation

17. In round robin CPU scheduling, as the quantum is increased, the average turn around time
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains constant
d. varies irregularly

18. In a multiprogramming environment,
a. the processor executes more than one process at a time
b. the programs are developed by more than one person
c. more than one process is resident in the memory
d. a single user can execute many programs in the same time

19. In which of the following scheduling policies does context switching never take place?
a. Round-robin
b. SJF
c. Pre-emptive
d. FCFS

20. suppose that a process is in ‘BLOCKED’ state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is completed, it goes to the
a. RUNNING state
b. READY state
c. SUSPENDED state
d. TERMINATED state

21. For implementing a multiprogramming operating system,
a. Special support from processor is essential
b. Special support form is not essential
c. Cache memory must be available
d. More than one processor must be available

22. Distributed system should
a. meet prescribed time constraints
b. aim better resource sharing
c. aim better system utilization
d. aim low system overhead

23. In real time operating system, which of the following is most suitable scheduling scheme?
a. Round-robin
b. FCFS
c. Pre-emptive scheduling
d. Random scheduling

24. Memory protection is normally done by
a. the processor and associated hardware
b. the operating system
c. the compiler
d. the user program

25. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time
a. FCFS
b. SJF
c. Round-Robin
d. Priority

26. Which of the following scheduling policy is well suited for a time sharing operating system
a. SJF
b. Round-robin
c. FCFS
d. Priority

27. Which of the following is well suited for batch processing?
a. Process Control
b. Video game control
c. Preparing pay bills of employees
d. Preparing mailing addresses

____________________________________________________________________________________________